ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is calculating a client's expected date of delivery. The client's last menstrual period began on April 12. Using Nagele's rule, what date should the nurse determine to be the client's expected delivery date?
- A. January 19
- B. 325
- C. 105
- D. 112
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nagele's rule is a method used to calculate the expected delivery date by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period and adding 7 days. In this case, April 12 minus 3 months is January 12, plus 7 days gives January 19. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the application of Nagele's rule and are incorrect.
2. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient who has just returned from surgery?
- A. Monitor respiratory rate
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Check the surgical site
- D. Monitor heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the patient's respiratory rate. This assessment is essential as it ensures that the patient is breathing adequately post-surgery. Maintaining a patent airway and adequate oxygenation are the top priorities in the immediate postoperative period. Monitoring blood pressure, checking the surgical site, or monitoring heart rate are important assessments but are not the priority immediately upon the patient's return from surgery.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Hair loss
- C. Nausea
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect of radiation therapy due to damage to the salivary glands. It is essential for the nurse to monitor for this condition as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort. Fatigue (choice A) is a common side effect of radiation therapy, but in this case, dry mouth is a more specific side effect to monitor for. Hair loss (choice B) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. Nausea (choice C) is also a common side effect of radiation therapy, but dry mouth is a more direct effect of the treatment that the nurse should focus on monitoring.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glucose 180 mg/dL
- B. Sodium 136 mEq/L
- C. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
- D. Albumin 3.5 g/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Glucose 180 mg/dL." Elevated glucose levels in a client receiving TPN may indicate hyperglycemia, which can lead to complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is essential to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns related to TPN administration.
5. What is the appropriate action for a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Administer antihistamines
- C. Administer corticosteroids
- D. Administer oxygen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions as it helps reverse the symptoms rapidly by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. Antihistamines (Choice B) may help with mild allergic reactions but are not effective for severe cases. Corticosteroids (Choice C) are used to reduce inflammation and are typically not the first-line treatment for acute severe allergic reactions. Administering oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases, but epinephrine is the primary treatment to reverse the allergic reaction symptoms.
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