what is the priority nursing action for a patient with respiratory distress
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action for a patient with respiratory distress is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy is crucial in improving oxygenation levels and relieving respiratory distress, making it the top priority intervention. Repositioning the patient, administering bronchodilators, or providing chest physiotherapy may be necessary interventions depending on the underlying cause, but ensuring adequate oxygen supply should take precedence in addressing respiratory distress.

2. A client is receiving discharge instructions following a stroke. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Avoiding aspirin is crucial for this client as it can increase the risk of bleeding after a stroke. Choice B about consuming dairy products for calcium intake is not directly related to stroke management. Choice C regarding fluid intake is a good practice for overall health but not specifically related to stroke care. Choice D about limiting fiber intake is not typically a concern after a stroke unless there are specific complications that warrant it.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

4. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing the laboratory test results of a school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A WBC count of 14,000/mm³ is elevated, indicating a potential infection or inflammation, and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting as they indicate normal hemoglobin, platelet count, and hematocrit levels for a school-age child.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.

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