ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. What is the best way to manage a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Administer anticoagulants
- B. Apply compression stockings
- C. Encourage ambulation
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is crucial in managing patients with suspected DVT as it helps prevent further clot formation and reduces the risk of complications like pulmonary embolism. Choice B, applying compression stockings, is more focused on preventing DVT in high-risk patients rather than managing an established case. Encouraging ambulation, choice C, is beneficial in the prevention of DVT but is not the primary management for suspected cases. Monitoring oxygen saturation, choice D, is important in overall patient care but is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.
2. A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Antibiotic
- B. Beta-blocker
- C. Antiviral
- D. Beta2 agonist
Correct answer: Beta2 agonist
Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client. The professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Nephrotoxicity
- B. Hepatotoxicity
- C. Red Man Syndrome
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse effect of vancomycin characterized by flushing and rash. It is not related to nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, or diarrhea. Monitoring for this reaction allows for prompt intervention to prevent severe complications.
4. What is the purpose of using cimetidine (Tagamet) for gastroesophageal reflux?
- A. The medication reduces gastric acid secretion.
- B. The medication neutralizes the acid in the stomach.
- C. The medication increases the rate of gastric emptying time.
- D. The medication coats the lining of the stomach and esophagus.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cimetidine (Tagamet) is an H2 receptor antagonist that works by reducing gastric acid secretion. This action helps to decrease the acidity in the stomach, which in turn reduces the symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux. Choice B is incorrect because cimetidine does not neutralize acid but rather decreases its production. Choice C is incorrect as cimetidine does not affect the rate of gastric emptying time. Choice D is incorrect as cimetidine does not coat the lining of the stomach and esophagus but instead works to reduce gastric acid secretion.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased urine output.
- B. Hyperactive reflexes.
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
- D. Facial weakness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Facial weakness is a common finding in clients with Guillain-Barré syndrome due to muscle weakness. While increased urine output is not typically associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome, hyperactive reflexes are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or spinal cord injury. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not a classic finding in Guillain-Barré syndrome, making it an incorrect choice.
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