ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on loop diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can cause potassium depletion leading to hypokalemia, which is particularly concerning as it can result in cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with loop diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less common in patients on loop diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not a typical electrolyte imbalance associated with loop diuretics.
2. A client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 15 degrees
- B. Check gastric residual volumes every 6 hours
- C. Monitor the pH of gastric aspirate
- D. Instill 10 mL of air into the tube before feeding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Checking gastric residual volumes every 6 hours is essential in preventing aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings. This practice helps determine if the stomach is adequately emptying, reducing the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees, not 15 degrees, is recommended to further prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of reflux. Monitoring the pH of gastric aspirate is important to assess tube placement but does not directly prevent aspiration. Instilling air into the tube before feeding is not a recommended practice and does not prevent aspiration.
3. A nurse is assessing a school-age child who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Periorbital edema.
- B. Decreased frequency of urination.
- C. Enuresis.
- D. Diarrhea.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Enuresis is the correct finding to expect in a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. Enuresis, or involuntary urination, is a common symptom of UTIs in children. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is not typically associated with UTIs. Decreased frequency of urination (Choice B) is less likely in UTIs as there is often an increased urge to urinate. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a common symptom of UTIs and is more indicative of gastrointestinal issues.
4. When discussing clients designating a health care proxy in situations requiring a durable power of attorney for health care (DPAHC), what information should the charge nurse include?
- A. The proxy should make health care decisions for the client regardless of the client's ability to do so.
- B. The proxy can make financial decisions if the need arises.
- C. The proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia.
- D. The proxy should manage legal issues for the client.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The charge nurse should include information that the proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia. This is a key function of a durable power of attorney for health care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a health care proxy's role is specifically related to making health care decisions, not financial decisions, legal issues, or decisions made under anesthesia.
5. A client in active labor is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
- B. FHR baseline of 170/min.
- C. Early decelerations in the FHR.
- D. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a baseline FHR of 170/min indicates fetal tachycardia, which needs further evaluation. Choice A about contractions lasting 80 seconds is within the normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are generally considered benign and do not require immediate reporting. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), falls within normal limits for a laboring client and does not warrant immediate reporting.
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