Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on loop diuretics?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can cause potassium depletion leading to hypokalemia, which is particularly concerning as it can result in cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with loop diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less common in patients on loop diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not a typical electrolyte imbalance associated with loop diuretics.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for ceftriaxone. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a contraindication to this medication?

• A. Seizure disorder
• B. Hypertension
• C. Penicillin allergy
• D. Hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Penicillin allergy. Penicillin allergy is a contraindication for ceftriaxone because both medications are beta-lactam antibiotics. Seizure disorder (choice A), hypertension (choice B), and hyperlipidemia (choice D) are not contraindications for ceftriaxone and do not directly affect the use of this antibiotic.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. aPTT
• D. INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose as needed. While Prothrombin time (PT) and activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are also related to coagulation studies, monitoring INR specifically helps in managing warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is not typically monitored in relation to warfarin therapy.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Proteinuria of 1+.
• B. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
• D. Nonpitting ankle edema.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonpitting ankle edema is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention and should be reported immediately. Proteinuria of 1+ is a common finding in preeclampsia. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 18/min is also within normal range. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as nonpitting ankle edema in this scenario.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has hypertension about monitoring blood pressure at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use a cuff that is too loose for the arm.
• B. Place the cuff over clothing.
• C. Sit quietly for 5 minutes before measuring your blood pressure.
• D. Use the same arm for each reading.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to sit quietly for 5 minutes before measuring their blood pressure. This allows the body to relax and stabilize, leading to a more accurate reading. Choice A is incorrect because using a cuff that is too loose can result in inaccurate readings. Choice B is incorrect as the cuff should be placed directly on the bare skin. Choice D is incorrect as using the same arm for each reading is important for consistency in monitoring, but sitting quietly before measuring is crucial for accuracy.

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