Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.

2. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports frequent nausea and vomiting. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat high-protein foods.
• B. Lie down after meals.
• C. Drink water with meals.
• D. Eat dry carbohydrates before getting out of bed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting are common. Instructing the client to eat dry carbohydrates like crackers before getting out of bed can help alleviate these symptoms. This recommendation helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen nausea. High-protein foods (Choice A) may be harder to digest and could exacerbate nausea. Lying down after meals (Choice B) may increase gastric reflux and worsen symptoms. Drinking water with meals (Choice C) may make the client feel fuller, potentially worsening nausea.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F).
• B. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr.
• C. Heart rate of 92/min.
• D. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left lower extremity. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Pain in the right lower extremity
• B. Cold skin in the affected extremity
• C. Redness and warmth in the affected extremity
• D. Shiny skin on the affected extremity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Redness and warmth are classic signs of inflammation, which are commonly seen in clients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These findings indicate increased blood flow and temperature in the affected area. Pain in the right lower extremity (Choice A) is not expected in a client with DVT affecting the left lower extremity. Cold skin (Choice B) is not a typical finding in DVT; instead, warmth is more indicative of inflammation. Shiny skin (Choice D) is not a common characteristic of DVT; rather, the skin may appear red, swollen, and warm due to the inflammatory process.

5. A client has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. You may experience a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
• D. You should avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of captopril, an ACE inhibitor, and should be included in the teaching. Choice A is incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can increase potassium levels, so there is no need to further increase potassium intake. Choice D is incorrect because captopril does not interact with grapefruit.

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