Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.

2. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infections. Which statement by a participant indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can clean the cat's litter box during pregnancy.
• B. I can visit someone with the flu after receiving the vaccine.
• C. I should take antibiotics for viral infections.
• D. I should wash my hands after gardening.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement indicates a need for further teaching because antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. It is important to educate the participant that antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections, not viral ones. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that promote good hygiene practices and infection prevention during pregnancy.

3. A client post-thyroidectomy reports tingling in their lips and fingers. The nurse should identify this finding as an indication of which of the following complications?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tingling in the lips and fingers is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur as a complication following a thyroidectomy due to inadvertent damage to the parathyroid glands that regulate calcium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) presents with muscle weakness and cardiac issues, not tingling. Hyponatremia (Choice C) typically manifests with confusion, seizures, and muscle cramps. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is associated with increased thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a laminectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Elevate the client's legs while in bed.
• B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
• C. Maintain bed rest for the first 24 hours postoperatively.
• D. Ambulate the client on the first postoperative day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ambulating the client on the first postoperative day is crucial to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis and aid in the recovery process. Elevating the legs while in bed can help with circulation but is not as effective in preventing complications related to immobility post-surgery. Repositioning every 2 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address postoperative care. Maintaining bed rest for the first 24 hours postoperatively can increase the risk of complications associated with immobility, making early ambulation a more appropriate intervention.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in 2 days
• D. Heart rate of 76/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in 2 days can indicate fluid retention, which is a sign of worsening heart failure and should be reported. This rapid weight gain suggests a fluid overload, putting the client at risk for complications. A heart rate of 90/min is slightly elevated but not as concerning as a sudden significant weight gain. The serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not directly indicate worsening heart failure. A heart rate of 76/min is within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns related to heart failure.

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