which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal is to administer lorazepam as prescribed. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to prevent seizures and manage agitation in clients undergoing alcohol withdrawal. Administering haloperidol (Choice A) is not recommended in alcohol withdrawal as it may lower the seizure threshold. Keeping the client in a supine position (Choice B) is not specifically indicated in managing alcohol withdrawal. Encouraging the client to drink fluids with meals (Choice D) is important for hydration but does not address the acute symptoms of alcohol withdrawal.

3. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke is to perform a CT scan. A CT scan is crucial for diagnosing a stroke by visualizing any bleeding or blockages in the brain. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but it is not the primary intervention for a suspected stroke. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice C) is not indicated for stroke evaluation and may not provide relevant information. Administering anticoagulants (Choice D) is a treatment option for certain types of strokes but should be based on the CT scan results and specific guidelines.

4. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an acute myocardial infarction, it is important to involve the client in cardiac rehabilitation to help them recover and manage their condition effectively. Performing an ECG every 12 hours is not necessary unless there are specific indications for it. Placing the client in a supine position may not be ideal as it can increase venous return, potentially worsening cardiac workload. Drawing troponin levels every 4 hours is excessive and not recommended as troponin levels usually peak within 24-48 hours post-MI and then gradually decline.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take to identify the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit is crucial for correct identification. This action helps prevent errors by confirming that the blood product is indeed intended for the specific client. Matching the client's blood type with type and cross-match specimens (Choice A) is important for compatibility but does not directly verify the client's identity. Confirming the provider's prescription (Choice B) is relevant but does not ensure the correct identification of the client. Asking the client to state their blood type and confirm the date of their last blood donation (Choice C) relies on the client's memory and verbal confirmation, which may not be accurate or reliable for identification purposes.

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