ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum glucose.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so serum potassium should be monitored to evaluate its effectiveness. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are not directly affected by spironolactone and would not provide an accurate assessment of the medication's effectiveness.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. The client reports pain of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer ibuprofen 400 mg PO
- B. Administer oxycodone 10 mg PO
- C. Reposition the client to the unaffected side
- D. Apply a cold compress to the affected knee
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take when a client reports severe postoperative pain of 8 out of 10 is to administer oxycodone 10 mg PO. Oxycodone is a potent analgesic that is more effective in managing severe pain compared to ibuprofen, making choice A incorrect. Repositioning the client to the unaffected side or applying a cold compress may provide some comfort but are not the priority interventions for severe postoperative pain, making choices C and D less appropriate.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for ceftriaxone. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a contraindication to this medication?
- A. Seizure disorder
- B. Hypertension
- C. Penicillin allergy
- D. Hyperlipidemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Penicillin allergy. Penicillin allergy is a contraindication for ceftriaxone because both medications are beta-lactam antibiotics. Seizure disorder (choice A), hypertension (choice B), and hyperlipidemia (choice D) are not contraindications for ceftriaxone and do not directly affect the use of this antibiotic.
5. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Chloride 100 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.
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