Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine.
• B. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing.
• C. Perform debridement as needed.
• D. Keep the wound open to air.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing helps create a moist environment that promotes healing in clients with stage 2 pressure injuries. Choice A, cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine, is not recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can be too harsh on the skin. Performing debridement as needed, as mentioned in choice C, is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, which involve partial-thickness skin loss. Keeping the wound open to air, as stated in choice D, is also not the preferred approach for managing stage 2 pressure injuries, as maintaining a moist environment is key to promoting healing.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Tachypnea.
• D. Hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to low hemoglobin levels, prompting the body to increase respiratory rate to enhance oxygen uptake. Jaundice (choice A) is associated with liver issues, not anemia. Bradycardia (choice B) and Hypertension (choice D) are not typically expected findings in clients with anemia; instead, tachycardia may occur as the body compensates for the decreased oxygen delivery.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take prior to administering the medication?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
• B. Assess the client's apical pulse.
• C. Review the client's potassium level.
• D. Monitor the client's fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take prior to administering digoxin is to assess the client's apical pulse. Digoxin is known to affect the heart rate, potentially causing bradycardia. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (Choice A) is not directly related to administering digoxin. Reviewing the client's potassium level (Choice C) is important but not a direct prerequisite for administering digoxin. Monitoring the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is also important but not a specific action to take just before administering digoxin.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider?

• A. WBC count 8,000/mm3
• B. Platelets 150,000/mm3
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 75 mm/hr indicates inflammation, which is common in rheumatoid arthritis. Elevated ESR levels are often seen in inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Options A, B, and C are within the normal range and are not typically indicative of active inflammation associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated ESR level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

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