Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings shouldn't the nurse expect?

• A. Flashbacks
• B. Avoidance of reminders of the trauma
• C. Increased arousal and hypervigilance
• D. Manic episodes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Findings in a client with PTSD include flashbacks, avoidance of reminders of the trauma, increased arousal and hypervigilance, and negative changes in thoughts and mood. Manic episodes are not typically associated with PTSD.

2. A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, 'How can I go to work if I can't afford childcare?' What is the nurse's initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process?

• A. Determine the risks and benefits for each alternative.
• B. Formulate goals for resolution of the problem.
• C. Evaluate the outcome of the implemented alternative.
• D. Assess the facts of the situation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's initial step should be to assess the facts of the situation. By gathering accurate information about the client's circumstances, the nurse can better understand the problem and make informed decisions moving forward. This foundational assessment is crucial before proceeding to formulate goals, evaluate outcomes, or consider risks and benefits. Options A, B, and C involve steps that should follow the initial assessment of the situation, making them less suitable as the initial action in this context.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who appears to be experiencing moderate anxiety during questioning. Which symptom shouldn't the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Fidgeting
• B. Laughing inappropriately
• C. Palpitations
• D. Nail biting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Palpitations are not typically associated with moderate anxiety. Fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting are common behavioral symptoms of heightened stress levels. Palpitations may be more indicative of physiological responses, such as increased heart rate, which can occur in severe anxiety or panic attacks. Other signs of severe anxiety include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances.

4. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April's mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:

• A. Time-out is an important part of April's baseline discipline.
• B. Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.
• C. April enjoys time-out, and acts out to get some alone time.
• D. Time-out will need to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent use of time-out has reduced its effectiveness as a therapeutic measure for April.

5. A client experiencing a manic episode is talking rapidly and jumping from one topic to another. Which term describes this symptom?

• A. Circumstantiality
• B. Flight of ideas
• C. Tangentiality
• D. Perseveration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a manic episode, 'Flight of ideas' is characterized by rapid speech, where the individual moves quickly between topics without a clear connection. This symptom reflects the racing thoughts and impulsivity often seen in manic episodes. Circumstantiality refers to unnecessary detail and delay in getting to the point, tangentiality involves going off on a tangent or unrelated topics, and perseveration is the persistent repetition of a response or behavior. Therefore, 'Flight of ideas' best describes the symptom of rapidly changing topics during a manic episode.

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