Nursing Elites

1. A client has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Chest pain
• C. Excessive worry
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with generalized anxiety disorder commonly exhibit symptoms like excessive worry, restlessness, and difficulty concentrating. Physical manifestations such as muscle tension and sleep disturbances are also prevalent. Shortness of breath and chest pain are more commonly associated with panic attacks rather than generalized anxiety disorder. Decreased appetite may be present in some cases, but excessive worry is a hallmark characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Encourage participation in activities
• B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
• C. Monitor for suicidal ideation
• D. Discourage verbalization of feelings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Interventions for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode include encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, monitoring for suicidal ideation, and providing a structured daily schedule. Discussing feelings is an essential part of therapy for clients with bipolar disorder, thus discouraging verbalization of feelings is not therapeutic and should not be implemented. Choice D is incorrect because it goes against the principles of therapeutic communication and emotional expression, which are crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

3. When a husband accuses his wife of infidelity, which situation would indicate to the nurse the husband's use of the ego defense mechanism of projection?

• A. The husband cries and stamps his feet, demanding that his wife be true to her marriage vows.
• B. The husband ignores the wife's continued absence from the home.
• C. The husband has already admitted to having an affair with a coworker.
• D. The husband takes out his marital frustrations through employee abuse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Projection is a defense mechanism where one attributes their unacceptable feelings or impulses to another person. In this scenario, the husband, by admitting to having an affair with a coworker, is projecting his infidelity onto his wife, indicating the use of the projection defense mechanism. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a different behavior, not projection. Choice B does not demonstrate projection but rather avoidance or denial. Choice D shows displacement of aggression, not projection.

4. A client with major depressive disorder is receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client identifies and challenges negative thoughts.
• B. The client reports an increase in suicidal thoughts.
• C. The client experiences an increase in anxiety.
• D. The client shows no change in behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy, identifying and challenging negative thoughts is a fundamental aspect of the treatment process. This cognitive restructuring helps individuals with major depressive disorder to develop healthier thinking patterns and cope more effectively with their emotions, which ultimately leads to improvement in their mental health. Therefore, when a client is able to identify and challenge negative thoughts, it indicates that they are actively engaging in the therapeutic process and making progress towards better mental well-being.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

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