ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Pablo is a homeless adult who has no family connection. Pablo passed out on the street, and emergency medical services took him to the hospital where he expresses a wish to die. The physician recognizes evidence of substance use problems and mental health issues and recommends inpatient treatment for Pablo. What is the rationale for this treatment choice? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Intermittent supervision is available in inpatient settings.
- B. He requires stabilization of multiple symptoms.
- C. How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?
- D. Medication adherence will be mandated.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because medication adherence being mandated is not a primary rationale for inpatient treatment. The main reasons for recommending inpatient treatment in this scenario include the need for stabilization of multiple symptoms, addressing nutritional and self-care needs, and ensuring safety due to the imminent danger of self-harm. Inpatient settings provide a more intensive level of care and supervision to address these complex issues effectively.
2. The mental health team is determining treatment options for a male patient experiencing psychotic symptoms. Which question shouldn't the team answer to determine whether a community outpatient or inpatient setting is most appropriate?
- A. Is the patient expressing suicidal thoughts?
- B. Does the patient have intact judgment and insight into his situation?
- C. Does the patient have experiences with either community or inpatient mental healthcare facilities?
- D. Does the patient require a therapeutic environment to support the management of psychotic symptoms?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing suicidal thoughts, judgment, insight, and the need for a therapeutic environment are crucial factors in determining the appropriate treatment setting for a patient experiencing psychotic symptoms. Past experiences with mental healthcare facilities do not play a direct role in deciding between a community outpatient or inpatient setting.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with conversion disorder. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?
- A. Paralysis of a limb
- B. Auditory hallucinations
- C. Dissociative amnesia
- D. Compulsive behaviors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Conversion disorder is characterized by the development of neurological symptoms, such as paralysis of a limb, that cannot be explained by medical evaluation. The paralysis is typically due to a psychological conflict or stress rather than a physical issue. Auditory hallucinations, dissociative amnesia, and compulsive behaviors are not commonly associated with conversion disorder, making them incorrect choices. Therefore, the healthcare provider should expect to find paralysis of a limb in a client with conversion disorder.
4. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is often used to treat which of the following conditions?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Bipolar disorder
- C. Posttraumatic stress disorder
- D. Generalized anxiety disorder
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a widely used therapeutic approach effective in treating various mental health conditions. While CBT can be beneficial for different disorders, it is particularly well-suited for anxiety-related conditions like generalized anxiety disorder. CBT focuses on identifying and modifying negative thought patterns and behaviors contributing to anxiety, making it a suitable choice for treating generalized anxiety disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because CBT is not typically the first-line treatment for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, or posttraumatic stress disorder, although it may be used as a part of a comprehensive treatment plan.
5. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.
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