Nursing Elites

1. Why is the DSM-5 useful in the practice of psychiatric nursing?

• A. It guides the nurse in making accurate and reliable medical diagnoses.
• B. It represents progress toward a more holistic view of mind and body.
• C. It provides a framework for interdisciplinary communication.
• D. It provides a template for nursing care plans.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The DSM-5 is a crucial tool in psychiatric nursing as it guides nurses in making accurate and reliable medical diagnoses of mental health conditions. Using the DSM-5 ensures that diagnoses are standardized, improving the quality and precision of care for clients. While the DSM-5 also supports a holistic view, interdisciplinary communication, and care plan development, its primary role in psychiatric nursing is to assist clinicians in diagnosing mental health conditions accurately.

2. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• B. Place the client in a private room to decrease stimulation.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in physical activity.
• D. Administer a prescribed sedative.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may be easily overstimulated. Placing the client in a private room to decrease environmental stimuli is the priority intervention. This action can help reduce the risk of exacerbating manic symptoms and promote a calmer environment for the client. Choice A is not the priority as group therapy may be overwhelming during a manic episode. Choice C could potentially increase stimulation rather than decrease it. Choice D should not be the first action as sedatives are generally not the initial intervention for managing manic episodes.

3. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Methylphenidate
• D. Clozapine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly prescribed to manage symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain to improve focus, attention span, and impulse control. Haloperidol, fluoxetine, and clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic, fluoxetine is an antidepressant, and clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic, each with different mechanisms of action and primary indications.

4. A client has been diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is having nightmares about the event. The client reports difficulty sleeping at night. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the event during the day.
• B. Encourage the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol.
• C. Administer a prescribed sedative at bedtime.
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment with the client's therapist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take is to encourage the client to talk about the traumatic event during the day. This approach can assist the client in processing the trauma in a controlled environment, potentially reducing the frequency and intensity of nightmares. It allows for emotional expression and may promote better sleep by addressing the underlying psychological distress associated with PTSD. Encouraging the client to talk about the event during the day promotes therapeutic processing of the trauma and emotional expression, which can lead to improved coping mechanisms and potentially decrease the distressing symptoms like nightmares. Encouraging the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol may be beneficial, but addressing the emotional aspects first is crucial. Administering a sedative should not be the first approach, as it does not address the root cause of the nightmares. Scheduling a follow-up appointment with the therapist is important but should follow addressing the immediate distressing symptoms and promoting coping strategies.

5. A client is diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Encourage the client to express their feelings
• B. Teach the client relaxation techniques
• C. Promote regular physical activity
• D. Encourage the use of caffeine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Interventions for a client with GAD should include encouraging the client to express their feelings, teaching relaxation techniques, and promoting regular physical activity. Caffeine should be avoided as it can exacerbate anxiety symptoms. Stimulants like caffeine can increase feelings of restlessness and nervousness, making it counterproductive in managing anxiety. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions for managing generalized anxiety disorder by promoting emotional expression, relaxation, and physical well-being, respectively. Choice D, encouraging the use of caffeine, is incorrect as it can worsen anxiety symptoms rather than alleviate them.

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