Nursing Elites

1. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing borderline personality disorder?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• C. Psychoanalysis
• D. Supportive therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing borderline personality disorder. DBT is a specialized form of cognitive-behavioral therapy that focuses on providing skills to cope with intense emotions, improve relationships, and regulate behavior. It has been extensively studied and shown to be effective in reducing self-harm, suicidal behaviors, and improving overall functioning in individuals with borderline personality disorder. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Choice B) is a common and effective treatment for many mental health conditions but is not as specifically tailored to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder as DBT. Psychoanalysis (Choice C) is a more intensive and long-term therapy that focuses on exploring unconscious patterns and early life experiences, which may not be as practical or effective for the impulsive and emotional dysregulation seen in borderline personality disorder. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support but lacks the structured skills training and strategies that are essential in managing borderline personality disorder.

2. A patient is being educated about the difference between mental health and mental illness. Which statement by the patient reflects an accurate understanding of mental health?

• A. Mental health is the absence of any stressors.
• B. Mental health is successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment.
• C. Mental health is incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior.
• D. Mental health is a diagnostic category in the DSM-5.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mental health is defined as the successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment. This includes having thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are age-appropriate and congruent with cultural and societal norms. Mental health is not solely the absence of stressors or incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior, nor is it a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5. Choice A is incorrect because mental health is not just the absence of stressors but the ability to adapt to them. Choice C is wrong as mental health involves congruence, not incongruence, between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Choice D is inaccurate as mental health is a broader concept than a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is exhibiting negative symptoms. Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Delusions
• C. Apathy
• D. Disorganized speech

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Apathy is a negative symptom of schizophrenia characterized by a lack of interest or motivation. Negative symptoms involve a decrease or absence of normal functions, such as emotions, motivation, or socialization, rather than the presence of abnormal behaviors like hallucinations or delusions. Hallucinations (choice A) and delusions (choice B) are positive symptoms, which involve the presence of abnormal behaviors. Disorganized speech (choice D) is an example of a disorganized symptom, not a negative symptom.

4. Which approach involves surgically implanting electrodes into specific areas of the brain to stimulate regions identified as underactive in depression?

• A. Transcranial magnetic stimulation
• B. Deep brain stimulation
• C. Vagus nerve stimulation
• D. Electroconvulsive therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Deep brain stimulation is a treatment approach that involves the surgical implantation of electrodes into specific areas of the brain to stimulate regions identified as underactive in depression. This method aims to modulate brain activity and has shown effectiveness in treating certain cases of depression.

5. A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a patient with major depression at the county clinic. Since the patient has a mild intellectual disability, the nurse would question which classification of antidepressant drugs:

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
• B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
• C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are less suitable for patients with intellectual disabilities due to the need for dietary restrictions and close monitoring. These restrictions can be challenging for patients with mild intellectual disabilities to follow, making this drug class a concern for this patient population.

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