Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?

• A. Stomatitis
• B. Fatigue
• C. Wasting syndrome
• D. Lipodystrophy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Fatigue.' Early manifestations of HIV infection often include symptoms like fatigue, fever, and rash, which are typical of viral infections. Stomatitis (choice A) refers to inflammation of the mouth and lips, which can occur in HIV but is not specific to early infection. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more commonly associated with later stages of HIV infection rather than early manifestations.

2. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

• A. Increased risk of infection
• B. Increased risk of bleeding
• C. Decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections
• D. Increased risk of cardiac complications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

3. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves on ECG
• B. Prominent U waves on ECG
• C. Widened QRS complexes on ECG
• D. ST elevation on ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.

4. What is an escharotomy, and why is it performed?

• A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
• B. To reduce pain in the affected area
• C. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
• D. To remove fluid from a burn wound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical procedure performed to relieve pressure and improve circulation in areas affected by deep burns. Choice A is the correct answer because the primary goal of an escharotomy is to prevent compartment syndrome caused by increased pressure within the affected tissues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an escharotomy is not primarily performed to reduce pain, remove necrotic tissue, or drain fluid from a burn wound, but to address the specific issue of compromised blood flow and pressure within deep burn injuries.

5. A client who has burn injuries covering their upper body is concerned about their altered appearance. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. It is okay to not want to touch the burned areas of your body.
• B. Cosmetic surgery should be performed within the next year to be effective.
• C. Reconstructive surgery can completely restore your previous appearance.
• D. It could be helpful for you to attend a support group for people who have burn injuries.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client to attend a support group for individuals who have burn injuries. Support groups can provide emotional support, shared experiences, and coping strategies for accepting their altered appearance. Choice A is not the best response as it does not offer proactive support. Choice B is not appropriate as the timing of cosmetic surgery should be determined by healthcare providers, not immediate. Choice C is misleading as reconstructive surgery may improve appearance but may not completely restore the previous look.

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