a nurse is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to hiv which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an early manifestati
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Fatigue.' Early manifestations of HIV infection often include symptoms like fatigue, fever, and rash, which are typical of viral infections. Stomatitis (choice A) refers to inflammation of the mouth and lips, which can occur in HIV but is not specific to early infection. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more commonly associated with later stages of HIV infection rather than early manifestations.

2. A client who has burn injuries covering their upper body is concerned about their altered appearance. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client to attend a support group for individuals who have burn injuries. Support groups can provide emotional support, shared experiences, and coping strategies for accepting their altered appearance. Choice A is not the best response as it does not offer proactive support. Choice B is not appropriate as the timing of cosmetic surgery should be determined by healthcare providers, not immediate. Choice C is misleading as reconstructive surgery may improve appearance but may not completely restore the previous look.

3. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient admitted with possible acute coronary syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This intervention is a priority for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome because nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, increase blood flow to the heart muscle, relieve chest pain, and reduce cardiac workload. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (choice B) is important for diagnosing myocardial infarction but is not the initial priority. Getting IV access (choice C) is essential for medication administration and fluid resuscitation but is not the priority over administering nitroglycerin. Auscultating heart sounds (choice D) is a routine assessment but does not address the immediate need to relieve chest pain and improve blood flow to the heart in acute coronary syndrome.

4. What should be included in teaching for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excessive phosphorus intake can lead to further complications in kidney disease, such as bone and cardiovascular issues. Choice B is incorrect as increasing protein intake can put additional stress on the kidneys due to the buildup of urea and other waste products. Choice C is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can worsen hypertension and fluid retention, common issues in kidney disease. Choice D is incorrect as limiting sodium intake is generally recommended in kidney disease to manage blood pressure and fluid balance.

5. When caring for a patient with hypokalemia, what should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Answer: Muscle weakness is a common sign of hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor for muscle weakness as potassium plays a crucial role in muscle function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although hypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, bradycardia, and even seizures in severe cases, muscle weakness is a more common and specific sign directly related to potassium levels.

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