a nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine which of the fol
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because while inspecting the pin site is important, it should be done more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as the halo device should be supported by the client's body weight, not personnel, when repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection.

2. What should be the first medication given for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line medication for treating wheezing caused by an allergic reaction as it works as a bronchodilator, helping to relieve the symptoms of wheezing and shortness of breath quickly. Cromolyn (choice B) is used more for preventing asthma symptoms rather than for immediate relief. Methylprednisolone IV (choice C) and Aminophylline 500 mg IV (choice D) are not the first-line treatments for wheezing due to an allergic reaction.

3. What are the expected symptoms of a thrombotic stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' In a thrombotic stroke, a clot blocks a cerebral artery, leading to a gradual onset of symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choice B, 'Sudden loss of consciousness,' is more characteristic of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice C, 'Severe headache and confusion,' are often associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage rather than thrombotic stroke. Choice D, 'Loss of sensation in the affected limb,' is not a typical symptom pattern for a thrombotic stroke, which usually presents with motor deficits.

4. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

5. A patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. What is the appropriate action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lowering the height of the enema solution container is the appropriate action when a patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. This helps reduce the flow rate of the solution, potentially alleviating the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing tubing (Choice B) would be too abrupt and may not address the issue. Increasing the flow of enema solution (Choice C) could exacerbate the cramping by adding more pressure. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) might not provide immediate relief compared to lowering the height of the solution container.

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