Nursing Elites

1. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?

• A. An air leak
• B. A blockage in the chest tube
• C. Normal chest tube function
• D. Malfunction in the drainage system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the chest tube system. This bubbling occurs when air is escaping through the tube and entering the water seal chamber. Choice B, a blockage in the chest tube, is incorrect as continuous bubbling does not suggest a blockage. Choice C, normal chest tube function, is incorrect because continuous bubbling is not an expected finding in a properly functioning chest tube. Choice D, a malfunction in the drainage system, is incorrect as continuous bubbling specifically points towards an air leak, not a general malfunction.

2. What is the initial action for treating chest pain in acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Administer aspirin
• C. Check cardiac enzymes
• D. Obtain IV access

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial action for treating chest pain in acute coronary syndrome is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reducing the workload on the heart and improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Administering aspirin can also be beneficial, but the priority is to address chest pain promptly. Checking cardiac enzymes and obtaining IV access are important steps but are not the initial actions needed to alleviate chest pain in acute coronary syndrome.

3. What ECG changes are expected in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Widened QRS complexes
• D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily presents with flattened T waves, not prominent U waves, widened QRS complexes, or tall T waves. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia only in severe cases. Widened QRS complexes are more indicative of hyperkalemia, while tall T waves are seen in hyperkalemia as well.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 DM about hypoglycemia. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Exercise reduces the risk for hypoglycemia.
• B. I can skip my insulin when I don't eat.
• C. I can drink 4 oz of soda if my blood sugar is low.
• D. Diabetic pills don't cause hypoglycemia; only insulin does.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client can correct any development of hypoglycemia with a quick intake of glucose. The client should have 15 g carbohydrates on hand to treat hypoglycemic episodes, like 4 oz of regular soda.

5. What are the expected signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

• A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
• B. Severe headache and confusion
• C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
• D. Bradycardia and altered pupil response

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Restlessness, confusion, irritability. These are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) and require prompt intervention. Restlessness, confusion, and irritability are indicative of the brain's attempt to compensate for the rising pressure. Choice B is incorrect because severe headache alone is not specific to IICP and can be present in various conditions. Choice C is incorrect because elevated blood pressure is not a common sign of IICP; instead, hypertension may be present in the compensatory stage. Choice D is incorrect as bradycardia and altered pupil response are signs of advanced IICP, not early signs. Monitoring and recognizing these early signs are crucial for timely intervention and preventing further complications.

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