Nursing Elites

1. What symptoms are expected in a patient with compartment syndrome?

• A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
• B. Localized swelling and numbness
• C. Fever and infection
• D. Weakness and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the key symptoms include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms indicate reduced circulation in the affected compartment. Choice B is incorrect as localized swelling and numbness are not typically associated with compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as fever and infection are not primary symptoms of compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as weakness and fatigue are not typically seen in compartment syndrome.

2. What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. ST elevation
• D. Wide QRS complexes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.

3. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
• B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
• C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
• D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.

4. What should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Monitor for muscle weakness
• B. Check deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
• C. Monitor for seizures
• D. Monitor for bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for muscle weakness in a patient with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Checking deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Seizures (Choice C) are more commonly associated with low calcium levels rather than low potassium levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is a symptom of hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia.

5. What dietary instructions should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase protein intake to 1g/kg/day
• C. Increase sodium intake
• D. Avoid potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders in patients with kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing protein intake is not recommended as it can burden the kidneys. Increasing sodium intake is usually discouraged due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention in kidney disease. Avoiding potassium-rich foods is more relevant in advanced kidney disease stages when potassium levels are high, not in pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease.

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