Nursing Elites

1. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Serum albumin levels
• C. Hemoglobin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

2. A patient who experienced an acute episode of gastritis should avoid which type of foods?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium
• B. Avoid foods high in sodium
• C. Increase exercise
• D. Drink milk as a snack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients who have experienced an acute episode of gastritis should avoid foods high in potassium. Potassium-rich foods can irritate the gastric lining, exacerbating gastritis symptoms. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in sodium is beneficial for other health conditions like hypertension, increasing exercise is generally good for overall health but not specifically for gastritis management, and drinking milk may provide temporary relief for some but is not a definitive recommendation for gastritis management.

3. A patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. What action should the nurse take to relieve the discomfort?

• A. Lower the height of the solution container
• B. Increase the flow of enema solution
• C. Remove the enema tubing
• D. Stop the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to relieve abdominal cramping after enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment slows down the flow rate of the enema solution, which can help reduce discomfort by decreasing the pressure on the patient's abdomen. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) would exacerbate the cramping by introducing more solution quickly. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) is not necessary to address the cramping, and stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not be needed if adjusting the height of the solution container can resolve the issue.

4. What are the expected findings in a patient experiencing hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves on an ECG
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on an ECG. Hypokalemia is characterized by flattened T waves on an ECG, which is an early indicator of low potassium levels. Elevated ST segments (Choice B) are associated with conditions like myocardial infarction, not hypokalemia. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are typically seen in hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Bradycardia (Choice D) can be a manifestation of severe hypokalemia but is not as specific as flattened T waves on an ECG.

5. What should be the first medication given for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
• C. Methylprednisolone IV
• D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line medication for treating wheezing caused by an allergic reaction as it works as a bronchodilator, helping to relieve the symptoms of wheezing and shortness of breath quickly. Cromolyn (choice B) is used more for preventing asthma symptoms rather than for immediate relief. Methylprednisolone IV (choice C) and Aminophylline 500 mg IV (choice D) are not the first-line treatments for wheezing due to an allergic reaction.

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