Nursing Elites

1. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Serum albumin levels
• C. Hemoglobin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

2. What are the early signs of hypokalemia on an ECG?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. In hypokalemia, the T waves may flatten and eventually invert. Elevated ST segments are not typically associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in conditions like hypokalemia, but they are not considered an early sign. A widened QRS complex is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia.

3. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?

• A. Early menopause
• B. History of falls
• C. African American race
• D. Obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at a greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but rather a risk for fractures related to osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, obesity, is considered a protective factor against osteoporosis as excess weight can provide additional support to bones.

4. What ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST depression
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Elevated ST segments

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is known to cause ST depression on an ECG. Flattened T waves are more commonly seen in hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated ST segments are not typical findings in hyperkalemia.

5. How does hyponatremia place the patient at risk?

• A. Seizures
• B. Fatigue
• C. Cardiac dysrhythmias
• D. Muscle weakness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hyponatremia places the patient at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. While hyponatremia can lead to seizures due to cerebral edema caused by fluid imbalance, the most immediate and life-threatening risk is cardiac dysrhythmias. Low sodium levels can disrupt the heart's electrical activity, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias. Although fatigue and muscle weakness are symptoms of hyponatremia, cardiac dysrhythmias pose the most critical concern as they can have severe consequences.

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