ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Serum albumin levels
- C. Hemoglobin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.
2. What intervention is needed for continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Clamp the chest tube
- C. Replace the chest tube system
- D. Continue monitoring the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak in the system, and tightening the connections can help resolve this issue. Clamping the chest tube (Choice B) is not appropriate and can lead to complications by obstructing the drainage system. Similarly, replacing the entire chest tube system (Choice C) may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved by tightening the connections. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (Choice D) without taking action to address the continuous bubbling may delay necessary interventions to prevent complications.
3. A client is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) and a nurse is providing teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should not wash my hair prior to the procedure.
- B. I will receive a sedative 1 hour before the procedure.
- C. I should avoid eating prior to the procedure.
- D. I will be exposed to flashes of light during the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that flashes of light or pictures are often used during the procedure to assess the brain's response to stimuli. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because washing hair, receiving a sedative, and avoiding eating are not directly related to the EEG procedure.
4. What are the early signs of hypokalemia on an ECG?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. In hypokalemia, the T waves may flatten and eventually invert. Elevated ST segments are not typically associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in conditions like hypokalemia, but they are not considered an early sign. A widened QRS complex is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia.
5. What is the purpose of an escharotomy?
- A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
- B. To reduce pain in the affected area
- C. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
- D. To prevent infection from spreading
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure and improve circulation in areas affected by deep burns. This procedure helps prevent complications such as compartment syndrome by releasing the constricting eschar. Choice B is incorrect because while pain relief may be a secondary outcome of the procedure, the primary purpose is to address pressure and circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as an escharotomy specifically focuses on releasing pressure, not removing necrotic tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of an escharotomy is not to prevent infection but rather to address the immediate issues related to deep burn injuries.
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