a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management which of the following findings should the nurse report to the pr
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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A heart rate of 88/min is a normal finding; therefore, it does not require immediate reporting to the provider. The respiratory rate of 20/min, blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation of 94% are also within normal ranges and do not indicate any immediate concerns. However, a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can be a serious issue and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased urinary output is a common finding in clients with diabetes mellitus due to hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis. This results in the body trying to eliminate excess glucose through urine, leading to increased urinary frequency and volume. Weight gain is not typically associated with diabetes mellitus but may occur in poorly controlled cases due to increased calorie intake. Blurred vision is more commonly associated with acute complications like hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, is not a typical finding in diabetes mellitus but can be seen in conditions like hypoglycemia.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The adhesive bandage should be removed 3 days after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy to allow the incision to heal properly. Choice A is incorrect as the client should start with a clear liquid diet and advance to a regular diet as tolerated. Choice C is incorrect because the client should gradually increase activity levels as tolerated. Choice D is incorrect as the client should avoid tub baths and opt for showers to prevent infection and promote healing.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the care plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to decreased blood clotting ability. Providing a stool softener is essential to prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, which can lead to bleeding in thrombocytopenic clients. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is a good oral hygiene practice but is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is important for immunocompromised clients to prevent exposure to pathogens but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is a precaution to reduce the risk of infection in immunocompromised clients but does not directly address the complications of thrombocytopenia.

5. A nurse in a pediatric unit is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a 7-year-old. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because informing the child that they will feel discomfort during catheter insertion is crucial to prepare them for the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as children should not handle medical supplies. Choice C is inappropriate as using a restraint can cause anxiety and fear in the child. Choice D is not necessary as having parents present can provide comfort and support to the child during the procedure.

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