ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Crackles in the lung bases
- C. Dependent edema
- D. Productive cough
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dependent edema is a common finding in clients with pneumonia due to fluid retention and decreased mobility. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia. Crackles in the lung bases (Choice B) are more commonly heard in conditions like heart failure or pulmonary edema. A productive cough (Choice D) can be seen in pneumonia but is not as specific as dependent edema.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a colostomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Stoma that is red and moist
- B. Purulent drainage from the stoma
- C. Stoma that is dry and purple
- D. Mild swelling around the stoma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A dry, purple stoma is abnormal and may indicate compromised blood flow, which should be reported to the provider. A red and moist stoma is a normal finding postoperatively. Purulent drainage from the stoma indicates infection and should also be reported. Mild swelling around the stoma is common in the early postoperative period and does not typically require immediate reporting.
3. When administering an incorrect dose of medication, which facts related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?
- A. Time the medication was given
- B. The client's response to the medication
- C. The dose that was administered
- D. Reason for the error
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should document the time the medication was given in the client's medical record when administering an incorrect dose. This information is crucial for tracking the sequence of events leading to the error. Choice B, the client's response to the medication, is important for monitoring the client's condition post-administration but may not be directly linked to the incident report. Choice C, documenting the dose that was administered, is relevant but does not provide insights into the timing of events. Choice D, detailing the reason for the error, should be included in the incident report but may not need to be documented in the client's medical record.
4. What is the primary purpose of administering an antiemetic?
- A. To reduce nausea and vomiting
- B. To increase appetite
- C. To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy
- D. To treat allergic reactions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To reduce nausea and vomiting.' Antiemetics are medications used to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. While they may indirectly help with appetite by reducing the unpleasant symptoms that can lead to decreased food intake, their primary purpose is not to increase appetite (Choice B). Choice C, 'To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy,' is partly correct as antiemetics are commonly used to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea, but this is not their exclusive purpose. Choice D, 'To treat allergic reactions,' is incorrect as antiemetics are not primarily used for treating allergic reactions.
5. A nurse is completing a dietary assessment for a client who is Jewish and observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Leavened bread may be eaten during Passover.
- B. Shellfish is commonly consumed in the diet.
- C. Meat and dairy products are eaten separately.
- D. Fasting from meat occurs during Hanukkah.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Kosher dietary laws require the separation of meat and dairy products. Choice A is incorrect because leavened bread is not eaten during Passover in Jewish dietary practices. Choice B is incorrect as shellfish is not considered kosher and is not consumed in Jewish dietary practices. Choice D is incorrect as fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah.
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