a nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dependent edema is a common finding in clients with pneumonia due to fluid retention and decreased mobility. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia. Crackles in the lung bases (Choice B) are more commonly heard in conditions like heart failure or pulmonary edema. A productive cough (Choice D) can be seen in pneumonia but is not as specific as dependent edema.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid crossing your legs when sitting.' After a total hip arthroplasty, it is important for clients to avoid crossing their legs to prevent complications such as dislocation. Crossing the legs can put strain on the new hip joint, increasing the risk of dislocation. Choice A is incorrect as crossing legs can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as bending at the waist can strain the hip joint, leading to complications. Choice D is incorrect as using a raised toilet seat is recommended after hip surgery to prevent excessive bending at the hip joint.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take to identify the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit is crucial for correct identification. This action helps prevent errors by confirming that the blood product is indeed intended for the specific client. Matching the client's blood type with type and cross-match specimens (Choice A) is important for compatibility but does not directly verify the client's identity. Confirming the provider's prescription (Choice B) is relevant but does not ensure the correct identification of the client. Asking the client to state their blood type and confirm the date of their last blood donation (Choice C) relies on the client's memory and verbal confirmation, which may not be accurate or reliable for identification purposes.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's INR to determine the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. Warfarin is commonly used as an anticoagulant, and maintaining the INR within the therapeutic range ensures that the client is protected from both clotting and bleeding events. Monitoring serum calcium levels, platelet count, or WBC count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of dehydration because the body tries to compensate for the reduced fluid volume by increasing the heart rate. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically seen in dehydration as the body tries to maintain perfusion. Increased skin turgor (choice B) is actually a sign of dehydration, but tachycardia is a more specific finding. A bounding pulse (choice D) is associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or aortic regurgitation, not dehydration.

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