ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Crackles in the lung bases
- C. Dependent edema
- D. Productive cough
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dependent edema is a common finding in clients with pneumonia due to fluid retention and decreased mobility. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia. Crackles in the lung bases (Choice B) are more commonly heard in conditions like heart failure or pulmonary edema. A productive cough (Choice D) can be seen in pneumonia but is not as specific as dependent edema.
2. The classic definition of public health is:
- A. It is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.
- B. It is the health of individuals and communities that are, to a large extent, affected by a combination of many factors.
- C. It refers to the overall health of individuals, families, and communities being influenced by various factors in the ecosystem.
- D. It is the science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life, and promoting health through organized community efforts for sanitation, disease control, and health education.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The classic definition of public health is focused on the science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life, and promoting health through organized community efforts. This definition emphasizes the importance of community-based interventions to improve public health outcomes such as sanitation, disease control, and health education. Public health aims to address the health needs of populations rather than just individuals, highlighting the collective approach to enhancing the well-being of communities.
3. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis. Which of the following tests should the nurse tell the client to expect before beginning this medication?
- A. Skin test for allergy to the medication
- B. ECG to rule out cardiac dysrhythmias
- C. Mantoux test to rule out exposure to tuberculosis
- D. Liver function tests to assess risk for medication toxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before starting Calcitonin-salmon, it is important to assess for any potential allergies as anaphylaxis can occur. A skin test is usually conducted to determine if the client is allergic to the medication. The nurse should also inquire about any previous allergies to fish, as Calcitonin-salmon is derived from salmon. Options B, C, and D are not necessary before initiating Calcitonin-salmon therapy. ECG is not directly related to this medication, Mantoux test is used to diagnose tuberculosis, and liver function tests are not specifically required before starting Calcitonin-salmon.
4. The nurse is preparing to admit a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The nurse understands that the peak age at onset for this disease is what?
- A. 2 to 3 years
- B. 4 to 5 years
- C. 6 to 7 years
- D. 8 to 9 years
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The peak age for the onset of minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) is typically between 4 and 5 years old. MCNS is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children, particularly within this age range.
5. Which type of bread, cereal, or pasta would most likely be recommended for a patient on a fat-restricted diet?
- A. popcorn
- B. fried rice
- C. English muffins
- D. granola
Correct answer: C
Rationale: English muffins would be the most suitable option for a patient on a fat-restricted diet. They are typically lower in fat compared to fried rice, granola, and popcorn with butter. Popcorn, fried rice, and granola are higher in fat content and may not be the best choice for individuals on a fat-restricted diet.
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