a nurse is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients which prescription should the nurse identify as complete
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A nurse is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which prescription should the nurse identify as complete?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A complete prescription should include the medication name (Furosemide), dosage (20 mg), and administration schedule (BID - twice daily). Choice B is missing the dosage of Aspirin, choice C lacks the dosage information for Nitroglycerin, and choice D does not specify the administration schedule for Metoprolol.

2. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators. In an acute asthma attack, the priority is to open the airways and improve airflow. Bronchodilators like albuterol are crucial in providing immediate relief to the patient. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is important but administering bronchodilators takes precedence in managing the acute attack. Providing supplemental oxygen (choice C) may be necessary but addressing the airway obstruction with bronchodilators is the priority. Starting IV fluids (choice D) is not the priority in an acute asthma attack unless specifically indicated for other reasons such as dehydration.

3. A client prescribed clozapine is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that decreases the number of white blood cells. Reporting a sore throat is crucial as it could be a sign of infection. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between clozapine and grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect because clozapine is usually taken without regard to meals. Choice D is incorrect as clozapine is generally taken without food to enhance absorption.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin level. Monitoring the serum albumin level helps assess the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Serum albumin is a protein that reflects the long-term nutritional status of a patient. Serum calcium level (choice A) is not directly related to TPN effectiveness. Blood glucose level (choice B) is important to monitor in diabetic patients but is not the primary indicator of TPN efficacy. Serum sodium level (choice D) is more related to fluid balance and electrolyte status rather than the effectiveness of TPN.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a verbal prescription for restraints due to acute mania is to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. Documenting at regular intervals is essential to monitor the client's well-being, assess the effects of the restraints, and ensure the client's safety. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not as crucial as documenting the overall condition. Obtaining a prescription for restraints within 4 hours (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed when a verbal prescription is already obtained.

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