Nursing Elites

1. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient with kidney disease?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor input and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Check urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. This method is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients with kidney disease. Daily weight monitoring can detect even small changes in fluid balance, such as fluid retention or loss, which may not be evident through other methods. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance as it doesn't consider factors like insensible losses. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid retention but may not always be present or may be difficult to assess accurately. Checking urine output (choice D) is important but may not reflect the overall fluid balance status of the patient.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Respiratory rate 16/min.
• B. Blood pressure 118/78 mm Hg.
• C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
• D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but toxicity can lead to serious complications, including respiratory depression and loss of deep-tendon reflexes. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, so they do not require immediate reporting.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a complication of GERD?

• A. Hematemesis.
• B. Melena.
• C. Pallor.
• D. Steatorrhea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematemesis. Hematemesis (vomiting blood) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and a serious complication of GERD. Melena (black, tarry stool) is also a sign of GI bleeding but is not as specific to GERD as hematemesis. Pallor may be present due to anemia from chronic blood loss, but it is not a direct complication of GERD. Steatorrhea is not typically associated with GERD; it is more indicative of malabsorption issues.

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