ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient with kidney disease?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor input and output
- C. Check for edema
- D. Check urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. This method is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients with kidney disease. Daily weight monitoring can detect even small changes in fluid balance, such as fluid retention or loss, which may not be evident through other methods. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance as it doesn't consider factors like insensible losses. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid retention but may not always be present or may be difficult to assess accurately. Checking urine output (choice D) is important but may not reflect the overall fluid balance status of the patient.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider?
- A. WBC count 8,000/mm3
- B. Platelets 150,000/mm3
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 75 mm/hr indicates inflammation, which is common in rheumatoid arthritis. Elevated ESR levels are often seen in inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Options A, B, and C are within the normal range and are not typically indicative of active inflammation associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated ESR level to the provider for further evaluation and management.
3. A nurse is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) during a staffing shortage. Which client should be delegated to the LPN?
- A. A client with an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.
- B. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
- C. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube set to continuous suction.
- D. A client who fractured his femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube set to continuous suction requires routine postoperative care, which an LPN can manage. Choice A involves administering blood products, which typically requires assessment and monitoring by a registered nurse. Choice B indicates a potentially serious neurological condition that requires assessment by a higher-level provider. Choice D suggests a client experiencing respiratory distress, which requires immediate assessment and intervention by a registered nurse or physician.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following therapeutic effects of this medication?
- A. Improved mental status.
- B. Increased urine output.
- C. Decreased serum ammonia.
- D. Decreased bilirubin levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum ammonia. Lactulose is prescribed to decrease serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy. By reducing serum ammonia, lactulose helps improve the mental status of these clients. Therefore, monitoring for decreased serum ammonia is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose therapy. Choice A (Improved mental status) is indirectly related as it is the desired outcome of decreasing ammonia levels. Choices B (Increased urine output) and D (Decreased bilirubin levels) are not directly associated with the therapeutic effects of lactulose in cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
- B. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities
- C. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week
- D. Mild headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.
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