ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A client is receiving discharge teaching about a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication with milk.
- B. I should expect my stools to turn black.
- C. I should avoid eating oranges while taking this medication.
- D. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When taking ferrous sulfate, clients should expect their stools to turn black, which is a normal side effect due to the iron content. Choice A is incorrect because ferrous sulfate should not be taken with milk as it can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because vitamin C-rich foods like oranges can actually enhance the absorption of iron. Choice D is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Mouth sores
- C. Hyperpigmentation
- D. Increased saliva production
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mouth sores. Mouth sores are a common side effect of radiation therapy, especially when the treatment is focused on the head or neck area. Weight gain is not typically associated with radiation therapy; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to side effects like nausea and loss of appetite. Hyperpigmentation is not a common finding related to radiation therapy. Increased saliva production is not a typical side effect of radiation therapy; instead, clients may experience dry mouth.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing acute mania. What intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
- B. Withdraw TV privileges if the client does not attend group therapy.
- C. Place the client in seclusion during periods of anxiety.
- D. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods. During acute mania, individuals often experience high levels of energy, decreased need for sleep, and increased activity levels. Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods can help prevent exhaustion and promote better self-regulation. Choice B is incorrect because withdrawing TV privileges may not be directly related to managing acute mania. Choice C is incorrect as placing the client in seclusion can exacerbate feelings of anxiety and agitation. Choice D is incorrect as spending time in the day room may not address the need for rest and relaxation that is crucial during acute mania.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship. Which statement should the nurse make during this phase?
- A. Let's talk about how you can change your response to stress.
- B. We should establish our roles in the initial session.
- C. Let me show you simple relaxation exercises to manage stress.
- D. We should discuss resources to implement in your daily life.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship, it is crucial to establish roles. This helps both the client and the nurse understand their responsibilities, boundaries, and expectations within the therapeutic process. Choice A is more focused on the working phase where strategies and interventions are discussed. Choice C is more suitable for the working phase where specific techniques are usually introduced. Choice D is also more relevant to the working phase as it involves discussing practical resources for implementation in daily life.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.
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