ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the transmission of the disease?
- A. Place the client in droplet isolation.
- B. Place the client in airborne isolation.
- C. Wear a surgical mask when providing care to the client.
- D. Keep the client's door closed at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Place the client in airborne isolation.' Tuberculosis is an airborne disease transmitted through droplet nuclei. Placing the client in airborne isolation helps prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A, placing the client in droplet isolation, is incorrect because tuberculosis is not transmitted through large droplets. Choice C, wearing a surgical mask when providing care to the client, is not sufficient as airborne precautions are necessary. Choice D, keeping the client's door closed at all times, does not directly address the prevention of disease transmission in this case.
2. A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about the correct use of restraints. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Place a belt restraint on a school-age child who has seizures.
- B. Secure wrist restraints to the bed rails for an adolescent.
- C. Apply elbow immobilizers to an infant with a cleft lip injury.
- D. Keep the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct use of restraints is crucial to ensure patient safety. Keeping the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated is a safe practice as it prevents falls and provides a level of protection without directly restraining the child. Placing a belt restraint on a child with seizures (Choice A) is inappropriate as it may restrict movement and cause harm during a seizure. Securing wrist restraints to bed rails for an adolescent (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to injuries and compromise circulation. Applying elbow immobilizers to an infant with a cleft lip injury (Choice C) is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of restraint and is not a standard practice in this situation.
3. A client with a new colostomy requires care planning by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Change the ostomy pouch every 4 to 7 days.
- B. Empty the ostomy pouch when it is half full.
- C. Apply a skin barrier around the stoma.
- D. Cleanse the peristomal skin with alcohol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the ostomy pouch every 4 to 7 days. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and leakage by maintaining a clean and secure seal around the stoma. Option B is incorrect because it is more important to change the pouch regularly rather than emptying it when half full. Option C is incorrect as applying a skin barrier is typically done during the initial application of the pouch, not during regular changes. Option D is incorrect because alcohol can be too harsh for the peristomal skin and can cause irritation.
4. A client has a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system. Which of the following actions should be taken?
- A. Clamp the chest tube during ambulation
- B. Keep the collection chamber below the level of the chest
- C. Add sterile water to the water-seal chamber
- D. Empty the collection chamber every 12 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system is to add sterile water to the water-seal chamber. This is necessary to maintain the correct water level for proper chest tube function. Clamping the chest tube during ambulation (Choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to complications by obstructing drainage. Keeping the collection chamber below the level of the chest (Choice B) is incorrect because it should be kept below the chest to facilitate drainage. Emptying the collection chamber every 12 hours (Choice D) is incorrect as it should be emptied whenever it reaches the fill line or as per facility policy, not on a fixed time schedule.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Patients on diuretics are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is an imbalance of sodium levels and is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is the opposite condition where potassium levels are elevated and is less common in patients on diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an excess of calcium in the blood and is not directly related to diuretic use. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial in patients taking diuretics.
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