ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the transmission of the disease?
- A. Place the client in droplet isolation.
- B. Place the client in airborne isolation.
- C. Wear a surgical mask when providing care to the client.
- D. Keep the client's door closed at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Place the client in airborne isolation.' Tuberculosis is an airborne disease transmitted through droplet nuclei. Placing the client in airborne isolation helps prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A, placing the client in droplet isolation, is incorrect because tuberculosis is not transmitted through large droplets. Choice C, wearing a surgical mask when providing care to the client, is not sufficient as airborne precautions are necessary. Choice D, keeping the client's door closed at all times, does not directly address the prevention of disease transmission in this case.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional review before administering the medication?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. INR
- C. Platelet count
- D. Potassium levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Before administering enoxaparin, it is essential to review potassium levels to monitor for potential imbalances. Enoxaparin, a type of anticoagulant, does not directly affect PT, INR, or platelet count. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication. PT and INR are typically used to monitor warfarin therapy, while platelet count is essential for assessing clotting function but is not directly related to enoxaparin administration.
3. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 90/min
- B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
- C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Chest pain.
- D. Dilated pupils.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.
5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has a body mass index (BMI) of 24. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should increase your caloric intake by 600 calories per day.
- B. You should increase your caloric intake by 300 calories per day.
- C. You should maintain your prepregnancy caloric intake during the first trimester.
- D. You should increase your caloric intake by 150 calories per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the first trimester, it is recommended to increase caloric intake by 300 calories per day to support fetal growth and development. Choice A suggesting an increase of 600 calories is excessive and unnecessary. Choice C advising to maintain prepregnancy caloric intake could lead to inadequate nutrition for the developing fetus. Choice D recommending an increase of 150 calories is insufficient to meet the increased energy demands of pregnancy.
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