Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Piloerection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following precautions should the nurse implement?

• A. Place the client in a negative pressure room
• B. Wear an N95 respirator mask when entering the room
• C. Wear a gown and gloves when providing care to the client
• D. Place a face mask on the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct precaution to implement when caring for a client with Clostridium difficile infection is to wear a gown and gloves when providing care. Clostridium difficile is primarily spread through contact with feces, so wearing personal protective equipment like gowns and gloves is crucial in preventing the spread of the infection. Placing the client in a negative pressure room (Choice A) is not necessary for Clostridium difficile. While wearing an N95 respirator mask (Choice B) is important for airborne precautions, it is not required for Clostridium difficile. Placing a face mask on the client (Choice D) is not a standard precaution for preventing the spread of Clostridium difficile.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Lorazepam
• B. Atenolol
• C. Naltrexone
• D. Methadone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam is the correct choice for managing acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms due to its effectiveness in controlling agitation and tremors associated with this condition. Atenolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker mainly used for hypertension and angina, not for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Naltrexone (Choice C) is used for alcohol dependence treatment by reducing cravings and the rewarding effects of alcohol, but it is not typically used in acute withdrawal situations. Methadone (Choice D) is an opioid agonist mainly used for opioid detoxification and maintenance therapy, not for alcohol withdrawal.

4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
• B. This medication may cause your blood pressure to increase.
• C. This medication can cause you to retain fluids.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to take the medication with meals. This helps prevent gastrointestinal upset and improves medication tolerance. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as furosemide typically lowers blood pressure. Option C is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss rather than retention.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is dehydrated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the solution slowly over 24 hours
• B. Assess the client's lung sounds before administration
• C. Change the IV tubing every 12 hours
• D. Flush the IV line with 2 mL of heparin every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to assess the client's lung sounds before administering IV fluids. This is crucial to identify any signs of fluid overload, such as crackles or wheezes. Administering the solution slowly over 24 hours (choice A) is not appropriate for an IV bolus, which is a rapid infusion. Changing the IV tubing every 12 hours (choice C) is a standard practice for preventing infection but is not directly related to administering an IV bolus. Flushing the IV line with heparin every 4 hours (choice D) is a maintenance practice to prevent clot formation in the line, not specifically related to administering an IV bolus.

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