Nursing Elites

1. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about lifestyle changes to manage the condition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid eating small, frequent meals.
• B. Sleep with the head of your bed elevated.
• C. Lie down after eating.
• D. Avoid drinking fluids with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sleep with the head of your bed elevated.' Elevating the head of the bed helps reduce acid reflux by keeping the head higher than the stomach, preventing stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding eating small, frequent meals, lying down after eating, and drinking fluids with meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms by increasing stomach acid production and promoting acid reflux.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serous drainage at the incision site
• B. Temperature 38.2°C (100.8°F)
• C. Heart rate 92/min
• D. Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elevated temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) indicates a potential infection and should be reported to the provider. Elevated temperature postoperatively is often a sign of infection or inflammation, which can delay healing and increase the risk of complications. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider. Serous drainage at the incision site is expected in the initial postoperative period as part of the normal healing process, a heart rate of 92/min can be a normal response to surgery due to stress or pain, and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is also within normal limits for most clients.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of amoxicillin to a client who has an allergy to penicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
• B. Verify the client's allergy status before administering the medication.
• C. Ask the provider to prescribe a different antibiotic.
• D. Check the client's skin for any rashes before administering the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the provider to prescribe a different antibiotic instead of administering amoxicillin to a client with a known penicillin allergy. Choice A is incorrect because administering amoxicillin to a client with a penicillin allergy can lead to an allergic reaction. Choice B is not the best option as simply verifying the client's allergy status does not address the potential harm of giving amoxicillin. Choice D is irrelevant as checking the client's skin for rashes does not address the issue of administering a potentially harmful medication. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to request a different antibiotic from the provider to ensure the safety of the client.

5. What is the best position for a patient in respiratory distress?

• A. Semi-Fowler's position
• B. Trendelenburg position
• C. Prone position
• D. Supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a patient in respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and eases breathing by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position (choice B) where the patient's feet are higher than the head is not recommended in respiratory distress as it may cause increased pressure on the chest and reduced lung expansion. The prone position (choice C) lying on the stomach is also not optimal for respiratory distress as it can further compromise breathing. The supine position (choice D) lying flat on the back is not ideal as it may impair breathing by restricting chest expansion.

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