Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has diabetes mellitus and a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should inject this medication once a day, at the same time each day.
• B. You should expect your blood glucose level to increase immediately after administration.
• C. You should rotate injection sites between your abdomen and thigh.
• D. You should inject this medication with your meals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include is to inject insulin glargine once a day, at the same time each day. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a consistent level of insulin over 24 hours, helping to maintain stable blood glucose levels. Option B is incorrect because insulin glargine does not cause an immediate increase in blood glucose levels. Option C is important for preventing lipodystrophy but is not specific to insulin glargine administration. Option D is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically administered at the same time each day, regardless of meals.

2. How should fluid balance in a patient with heart failure be monitored?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor input and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in assessing fluid balance in patients with heart failure because sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid accumulation but may not be as accurate as daily weight monitoring. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hours
• B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• C. Heart rate of 94/min
• D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 78/min.
• B. Vision changes.
• C. Respiratory rate of 16/min.
• D. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vision changes. Vision changes are a classic sign of digoxin toxicity and should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. A heart rate of 78/min, a respiratory rate of 16/min, and a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg are within normal ranges and are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, they would not be the priority findings to report in this situation.

5. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

• A. Substernal retractions
• B. Hematuria
• C. Temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F)
• D. Sneezing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.

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