Nursing Elites

1. When collecting a sputum specimen from a client with tuberculosis, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain the specimen immediately upon the client waking up.
• B. Wait one day to collect the specimen if the client cannot provide sputum.
• C. Ask the client to provide 15 to 20 ml of sputum.
• D. Wear sterile gloves when collecting the specimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain the specimen immediately upon the client waking up. Collecting sputum early in the morning provides the best sample for tuberculosis testing. Option B is incorrect because waiting a day can decrease the accuracy of the specimen. Option C is incorrect as it does not specify the optimal timing for specimen collection. Option D is incorrect as sterile gloves should be worn for infection control but do not specifically relate to the timing of specimen collection.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate 68/min.
• B. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Vision changes.
• D. Respiratory rate 18/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Vision changes are a common sign of digoxin toxicity, which can be serious and should be reported to the provider immediately. Changes in heart rate, blood pressure, or respiratory rate are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting vision changes to ensure prompt assessment and intervention.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Syncope
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a mastectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid using deodorant until the incision heals.
• B. Perform arm exercises 24 hours after surgery.
• C. Wear tight-fitting clothing to support the incision.
• D. Perform arm exercises 2 days after surgery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid using deodorant until the incision heals. Using deodorant can lead to skin irritation, which should be prevented following a mastectomy. Choice B is incorrect because performing arm exercises should typically be delayed until recommended by the healthcare provider to prevent strain on the surgical site. Choice C is incorrect as tight-fitting clothing can increase discomfort and hinder proper healing. Choice D is also incorrect because initiating arm exercises should be based on the healthcare provider's guidance and not a specific timeframe.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

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