Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a manifestation of opioid toxicity?

• A. Bradypnea.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Diaphoresis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a common sign of opioid toxicity. When a client is experiencing opioid toxicity, the respiratory system is usually the most affected, leading to a decrease in the respiratory rate (bradypnea). Tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and diaphoresis (excessive sweating) are not typical manifestations of opioid toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradypnea.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is being taught about foot care by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Soak your feet in warm water every day to prevent dryness.
• B. Trim your toenails straight across to prevent injury.
• C. Apply lotion between your toes after bathing.
• D. Wear cotton socks to keep your feet dry.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Trim your toenails straight across to prevent injury.' In clients with diabetes, trimming toenails straight across is essential to prevent ingrown toenails and injury. Choice A is incorrect because soaking feet in warm water can lead to dryness, which is not recommended for diabetic foot care. Choice C is incorrect as applying lotion between the toes can create excess moisture, increasing the risk of fungal infections. Choice D is incorrect because although cotton socks are recommended, the primary purpose is to prevent moisture buildup, not specifically to keep the feet dry.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
• B. 1+ pitting edema
• C. Blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates decreased kidney perfusion, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Reporting this finding is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority as fetal heart rate of 110/min, 1+ pitting edema, and blood pressure of 138/80 mm Hg are within normal limits for a client with preeclampsia at 38 weeks of gestation.

4. What is the most important intervention for a patient with suspected DVT?

• A. Administer anticoagulants
• B. Monitor oxygen levels
• C. Apply compression stockings
• D. Encourage ambulation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is crucial in the management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps prevent the clot from growing larger or dislodging, potentially causing a life-threatening pulmonary embolism. While monitoring oxygen levels, applying compression stockings, and encouraging ambulation are important aspects of DVT management, administering anticoagulants is the most critical intervention to prevent further complications.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. Respiratory rate of 24/min
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3
• C. SpO2 of 95%
• D. Clear breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.

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