Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is educating a group of unit nurses about delegating client tasks to assistive personnel. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. The nurse is legally responsible for the actions of the AP.
• B. An AP can perform tasks outside of their scope if they have been trained.
• C. An experienced AP can delegate tasks to another AP.
• D. An RN evaluates the client's needs to determine tasks to delegate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is D: 'An RN evaluates the client's needs to determine which tasks are appropriate to delegate to assistive personnel.' This is an essential step in the delegation process to ensure that tasks are assigned appropriately based on the client's condition and the competencies of the assistive personnel. Option A is incorrect because while the nurse retains accountability for delegation decisions, the AP is responsible for their actions. Option B is incorrect as tasks should be within the AP's scope of practice regardless of training. Option C is incorrect as delegation typically involves assigning tasks from the RN to the AP, not between APs.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Crackles in the lung bases
• B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• C. Heart rate of 88/min
• D. Frequent productive cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crackles in the lung bases. In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, suggesting worsening respiratory status. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B, an oxygen saturation of 95%, is within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, a heart rate of 88/min, is also within normal limits and does not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Choice D, a frequent productive cough, is a common symptom in pneumonia and may not require immediate reporting unless it is severe or worsening. Therefore, crackles in the lung bases are the most concerning finding that warrants prompt attention.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is developing hypokalemia?

• A. Positive Trousseau's sign.
• B. Hyperactive reflexes.
• C. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
• D. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive Trousseau's sign. When a patient receiving furosemide is developing hypokalemia, they may exhibit a positive Trousseau's sign, an indication of low potassium levels. This sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for a few minutes, resulting in carpal spasm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactive reflexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not specifically related to hypokalemia. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a manifestation of pulmonary congestion?

• A. Frothy, pink sputum
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Weight gain
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Frothy, pink sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary congestion in left-sided heart failure. This occurs due to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to the coughing up of frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Jugular vein distention (choice B) is more indicative of right-sided heart failure, where fluid backs up into the systemic circulation. Weight gain (choice C) may occur due to fluid retention, but it is not a direct manifestation of pulmonary congestion. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to abnormally slow breathing and is not specifically associated with pulmonary congestion.

5. What is the best position for a patient with respiratory distress?

• A. Semi-Fowler's position
• B. Trendelenburg position
• C. Prone position
• D. Supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a patient with respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position, where the patient's feet are higher than the head, is contraindicated in respiratory distress as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The prone position, lying face down, may be beneficial in certain cases like acute respiratory distress syndrome but is not generally recommended for all patients in respiratory distress. The supine position, lying flat on the back, can worsen respiratory distress by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.

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