Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is educating a group of unit nurses about delegating client tasks to assistive personnel. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. The nurse is legally responsible for the actions of the AP.
• B. An AP can perform tasks outside of their scope if they have been trained.
• C. An experienced AP can delegate tasks to another AP.
• D. An RN evaluates the client's needs to determine tasks to delegate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is D: 'An RN evaluates the client's needs to determine which tasks are appropriate to delegate to assistive personnel.' This is an essential step in the delegation process to ensure that tasks are assigned appropriately based on the client's condition and the competencies of the assistive personnel. Option A is incorrect because while the nurse retains accountability for delegation decisions, the AP is responsible for their actions. Option B is incorrect as tasks should be within the AP's scope of practice regardless of training. Option C is incorrect as delegation typically involves assigning tasks from the RN to the AP, not between APs.

2. How should a healthcare provider care for a patient with a tracheostomy?

• A. Clean the tracheostomy site daily
• B. Change the tracheostomy ties daily
• C. Suction the tracheostomy regularly
• D. Provide humidified oxygen

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy regularly is crucial in caring for a patient with a tracheostomy as it helps keep the airway clear of secretions, preventing blockages and potential complications. Cleaning the tracheostomy site daily is important for hygiene but not as critical as regular suctioning. Changing the tracheostomy ties daily may not be necessary unless soiled or loose. Providing humidified oxygen may be part of the care plan but is not as directly related to maintaining the tracheostomy patency as suctioning.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of furosemide. Which of the following findings indicates the nurse should increase the client's infusion rate?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
• B. Heart rate of 90/min
• C. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• D. Weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hours can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring an increase in diuresis. This finding suggests that the current diuretic therapy is not effective enough to manage the fluid overload, necessitating an increase in the infusion rate of furosemide. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the need for an increase in diuretic therapy in heart failure patients. Urine output of 20 mL/hr, a heart rate of 90/min, and a sodium level of 138 mEq/L are important parameters to monitor but do not specifically indicate the need to increase the infusion rate of furosemide.

4. A client is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the priority?

• A. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
• B. Check the client's urinary output.
• C. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
• D. Assess the client's pain level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioid analgesics, the priority assessment is monitoring respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress promptly. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) and urinary output (Choice B) are important assessments too, but they are not the priority when compared to ensuring adequate respiratory function. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the priority assessment when the client is on opioids, as respiratory status takes precedence.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Take this medication 1 hour before meals.
• C. Avoid potassium supplements while taking this medication.
• D. You may experience a persistent, dry cough while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Captopril is known to cause a persistent, dry cough as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness. Choices A and B are incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so potassium supplements may be necessary in some cases.

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