Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?

• A. Paradoxical pulse
• B. Dependent edema
• C. Pericardial friction rub
• D. Substernal chest pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with pericarditis, the priority finding is a paradoxical pulse. This is a crucial sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, causing compression of the heart. A paradoxical pulse is an exaggerated decrease in systolic blood pressure (>10 mmHg) during inspiration. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent hemodynamic instability and cardiac arrest. Dependent edema (choice B) is not typically associated with pericarditis. Pericardial friction rub (choice C) is a common finding in pericarditis but does not indicate the urgency of intervention as a paradoxical pulse. Substernal chest pain (choice D) is a classic symptom of pericarditis but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse in the context of assessing for complications.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will check my blood glucose level once a week.
• B. I will eat a snack if my blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL.
• C. I will take my insulin as prescribed, even when I am feeling well.
• D. I will avoid physical activity if my blood glucose level is below 100 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should eat a snack when their blood glucose level is low, typically below 70-100 mg/dL, not when it is high. Eating a snack when the blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL can exacerbate hyperglycemia. Choice A is correct as checking blood glucose levels regularly is important in managing diabetes. Choice C is also correct as adherence to prescribed insulin therapy is crucial. Choice D is incorrect as physical activity can help lower blood glucose levels, especially when they are above the target range.

3. How should a healthcare professional handle a patient who is refusing to take a prescribed medication?

• A. Immediately give the medication
• B. Assess the reasons for refusal
• C. Document refusal
• D. Explore alternative treatment options

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the reasons for refusal is crucial as it allows the healthcare professional to understand the patient's concerns, which can range from fear of side effects to cost issues. By identifying the underlying reasons, the healthcare professional can tailor their approach to address these specific concerns, potentially improving medication adherence. Giving the medication immediately (Choice A) without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to further non-compliance. While documenting refusal (Choice C) is important for legal and tracking purposes, it does not directly address the patient's concerns. Exploring alternative treatment options (Choice D) may be considered after understanding the reasons for refusal, but it is not the initial step in managing medication refusal.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily.
• B. Irrigate the wound with hydrogen peroxide.
• C. Reposition the client every 4 hours.
• D. Use a moisture barrier ointment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a moisture barrier ointment. This intervention helps protect the skin and promote healing in clients with stage 3 pressure injuries. Cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily (Choice A) can be too harsh and may delay healing by damaging the surrounding skin. Irrigating the wound with hydrogen peroxide (Choice B) is not recommended as it can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. While repositioning the client every 4 hours (Choice C) is an essential intervention in preventing pressure injuries, it is not directly related to the care of an existing stage 3 pressure injury.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Syncope
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.

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