Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?

• A. Paradoxical pulse
• B. Dependent edema
• C. Pericardial friction rub
• D. Substernal chest pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with pericarditis, the priority finding is a paradoxical pulse. This is a crucial sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, causing compression of the heart. A paradoxical pulse is an exaggerated decrease in systolic blood pressure (>10 mmHg) during inspiration. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent hemodynamic instability and cardiac arrest. Dependent edema (choice B) is not typically associated with pericarditis. Pericardial friction rub (choice C) is a common finding in pericarditis but does not indicate the urgency of intervention as a paradoxical pulse. Substernal chest pain (choice D) is a classic symptom of pericarditis but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse in the context of assessing for complications.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply heat to inflamed joints
• B. Provide passive range-of-motion exercises
• C. Encourage prolonged use of NSAIDs
• D. Apply cold packs to the joints

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Applying heat to inflamed joints can help relieve pain in clients with osteoarthritis. Heat therapy can help improve blood circulation, relax muscles, and reduce stiffness. Choice B, providing passive range-of-motion exercises, may be beneficial for joint mobility but is not the first-line intervention for pain relief in osteoarthritis. Choice C, encouraging prolonged use of NSAIDs, should be done cautiously due to potential side effects and should be guided by a healthcare provider. Choice D, applying cold packs to the joints, is not recommended for osteoarthritis as cold therapy can worsen stiffness and discomfort in this condition.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication over 30 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client for a decrease in blood pressure during administration.
• C. Assess the IV site for infiltration during administration.
• D. Premedicate the client with an antiemetic prior to administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering vancomycin IV is to assess the IV site for infiltration during administration. Vancomycin is known to cause tissue damage if it infiltrates, making close monitoring crucial. Administering the medication over 30 minutes (Choice A) is a common practice but not the priority in preventing infiltration. Monitoring for a decrease in blood pressure (Choice B) is not directly related to vancomycin administration. Premedicating with an antiemetic (Choice D) is not typically required for vancomycin administration.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Shave the hair at the insertion site.
• B. Cleanse the site with povidone-iodine.
• C. Wear sterile gloves when changing the dressing.
• D. Change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to prevent infection when caring for a client with a new peripheral IV catheter is to change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours. Shaving the hair at the insertion site can actually increase the risk of infection by causing microabrasions in the skin. While cleansing the site with povidone-iodine is important before insertion, it is not necessary to continue doing so once the IV is in place. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the dressing is crucial for maintaining aseptic technique but does not directly prevent infection related to the IV site itself.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

• A. Crackles in the lung bases
• B. Blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 26/min
• D. Heart rate of 86/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.

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