ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?
- A. Paradoxical pulse
- B. Dependent edema
- C. Pericardial friction rub
- D. Substernal chest pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with pericarditis, the priority finding is a paradoxical pulse. This is a crucial sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, causing compression of the heart. A paradoxical pulse is an exaggerated decrease in systolic blood pressure (>10 mmHg) during inspiration. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent hemodynamic instability and cardiac arrest. Dependent edema (choice B) is not typically associated with pericarditis. Pericardial friction rub (choice C) is a common finding in pericarditis but does not indicate the urgency of intervention as a paradoxical pulse. Substernal chest pain (choice D) is a classic symptom of pericarditis but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse in the context of assessing for complications.
2. A client with a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eat foods that are high in fiber.
- B. Avoid dairy products to reduce diarrhea.
- C. Eat small, frequent meals to reduce symptoms.
- D. You should increase your intake of whole grains.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to eat small, frequent meals to reduce symptoms of Crohn's disease. This eating pattern can help manage symptoms by reducing the workload on the digestive system. Choice A is incorrect because foods high in fiber can aggravate symptoms in Crohn's disease. Choice B is incorrect because not all individuals with Crohn's disease need to avoid dairy products, and it is not a universal recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because increasing whole grains may not be suitable for everyone with Crohn's disease, as it can worsen symptoms in some cases.
3. A client with iron-deficiency anemia is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Oatmeal
- B. Red meat
- C. Bananas
- D. Whole grains
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red meat. Red meat is a good dietary source of heme iron, which is easily absorbed by the body and beneficial for individuals with iron-deficiency anemia. Oatmeal, bananas, and whole grains are not as rich in iron compared to red meat and may not provide sufficient amounts to help manage iron-deficiency anemia effectively.
4. A client with lactose intolerance and has eliminated dairy products from his diet should increase consumption of which of the following foods?
- A. Spinach
- B. Peanut butter
- C. Ground beef
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium. Since the client has eliminated dairy products due to lactose intolerance, which are a common source of calcium, increasing spinach consumption can help compensate for the lost calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium and therefore not the best choice for this client.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg
- B. Weight gain of 0.9 kg (2 lb) in 1 week
- C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
- D. Respiratory rate 16/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weight gain of 0.9 kg (2 lb) in 1 week is an indication of fluid retention, which is concerning in a client with preeclampsia. This can be a sign of worsening condition requiring immediate medical attention. High blood pressure (option A) is expected in preeclampsia, a urine output of 30 mL/hr (option C) is decreased but not as urgent as the weight gain in this scenario, and a respiratory rate of 16/min (option D) is within normal limits.
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