a nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis which of the following findings is the priority
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with pericarditis, the priority finding is a paradoxical pulse. This is a crucial sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, causing compression of the heart. A paradoxical pulse is an exaggerated decrease in systolic blood pressure (>10 mmHg) during inspiration. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent hemodynamic instability and cardiac arrest. Dependent edema (choice B) is not typically associated with pericarditis. Pericardial friction rub (choice C) is a common finding in pericarditis but does not indicate the urgency of intervention as a paradoxical pulse. Substernal chest pain (choice D) is a classic symptom of pericarditis but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse in the context of assessing for complications.

2. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing laboratory findings for a school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Hct 40%'. An abnormal hematocrit (Hct) level can indicate various conditions such as dehydration, overhydration, or blood disorders, and requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not typically warrant immediate provider notification. Hgb 12.5 g/dL (Choice A) is a normal hemoglobin level, Platelets 250,000/mm3 (Choice B) is a normal platelet count, and WBC 14,000/mm3 (Choice C) is slightly elevated but not significantly high to require urgent reporting.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering vancomycin IV is to assess the IV site for infiltration during administration. Vancomycin is known to cause tissue damage if it infiltrates, making close monitoring crucial. Administering the medication over 30 minutes (Choice A) is a common practice but not the priority in preventing infiltration. Monitoring for a decrease in blood pressure (Choice B) is not directly related to vancomycin administration. Premedicating with an antiemetic (Choice D) is not typically required for vancomycin administration.

5. A client who is postpartum requests information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding. This instruction is important as spermicides can potentially affect the milk supply and cause irritation. Choice A is incorrect because the effectiveness of the lactation amenorrhea method diminishes after the first six months postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as using the diaphragm used before pregnancy may not fit properly due to changes in the body postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as the transdermal birth control patch is typically applied to the abdomen, buttocks, or upper torso, not specifically the upper arm.

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