Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer dopamine hydrochloride at 4 mcg/kg/min for a client weighing 80 kg. How many mL/hr should the nurse set the IV infusion to deliver?

• A. 6 mL/hr
• B. 8 mL/hr
• C. 12 mL/hr
• D. 16 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the correct rate, you first need to convert the weight to micrograms: 4 mcg/kg/min * 80 kg = 320 mcg/min. Then, convert micrograms to milligrams: 320 mcg/min / 1000 = 0.32 mg/min. Next, calculate how many milligrams per hour: 0.32 mg/min * 60 min/hr = 19.2 mg/hr. Finally, determine the mL/hr rate by using the concentration provided: 19.2 mg/hr / 800 mg in 250 mL = 6 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 6 mL/hr. Choice B, 8 mL/hr, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation based on the weight and drug concentration. Choices C and D, 12 mL/hr and 16 mL/hr, are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation of the infusion rate for dopamine hydrochloride based on the client's weight and the medication concentration.

2. A client has a nasogastric tube and is receiving intermittent enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

• A. Administer a bolus feeding over 10 minutes.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of sterile water before feedings.
• D. Position the client on the left side during feedings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding contents. Administering a bolus feeding over 10 minutes (choice A) may not prevent aspiration as effectively as elevating the head of the bed. Flushing the tube with sterile water before feedings (choice C) is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (choice D) is not the recommended action to prevent aspiration; elevating the head of the bed is more effective.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider?

• A. WBC count 8,000/mm3
• B. Platelets 150,000/mm3
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 75 mm/hr indicates inflammation, which is common in rheumatoid arthritis. Elevated ESR levels are often seen in inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Options A, B, and C are within the normal range and are not typically indicative of active inflammation associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated ESR level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lithium. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid eating foods that contain tyramine.
• C. Drink at least 2 liters of water each day.
• D. Take this medication in the evening before bedtime.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed lithium is to drink at least 2 liters of water each day. This is important to prevent dehydration and reduce the risk of lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because lithium is usually taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is unrelated to lithium and is more applicable to clients taking MAOIs. Option D is incorrect as lithium is typically taken in divided doses throughout the day to maintain therapeutic levels.

5. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.

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