Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic pain?

• A. Administer analgesics
• B. Encourage physical activity
• C. Administer non-pharmacological interventions
• D. Encourage deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering prescribed analgesics is a crucial aspect of managing chronic pain effectively. Analgesics help alleviate pain symptoms and improve the patient's quality of life. While physical activity and non-pharmacological interventions can also play a role in pain management, the immediate need for relief in chronic pain often requires pharmacological intervention. Encouraging deep breathing exercises may provide some relief in certain situations, but it may not be as effective as analgesics for managing chronic pain.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Tachypnea.
• D. Hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to low hemoglobin levels, prompting the body to increase respiratory rate to enhance oxygen uptake. Jaundice (choice A) is associated with liver issues, not anemia. Bradycardia (choice B) and Hypertension (choice D) are not typically expected findings in clients with anemia; instead, tachycardia may occur as the body compensates for the decreased oxygen delivery.

4. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

• A. Administer anticoagulants
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Reposition the patient
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important nursing intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism is to administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation in the patient's blood vessels, reducing the risk of complications such as worsening of the pulmonary embolism or development of new clots. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary to support the patient's oxygenation, but anticoagulants take precedence as they target the underlying cause of the pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient (Choice C) and monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important aspects of patient care but are not the primary intervention for a suspected pulmonary embolism.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

• A. Calcium carbonate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Epoetin alfa
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

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