ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Increased level of consciousness.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. In a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP), tachycardia is a common finding. This is due to the body's compensatory mechanisms in response to the increased pressure. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with increased ICP and may indicate a different issue. Increased level of consciousness (choice B) is unlikely with increased ICP, as it often leads to altered mental status. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not directly related to increased ICP and are more indicative of gastrointestinal issues.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of osteoporosis and is prescribed alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Take this medication with a full glass of water after meals.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach with a full glass of water.
- D. You can take this medication at any time of day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C. Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water to ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken with food. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not after meals. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken at a specific time following the instructions given.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
- B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.
4. Which medication is used to treat opioid overdose?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Epinephrine
- C. Lidocaine
- D. Atropine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the standard medication for reversing opioid overdose by blocking opioid receptors. Choice B, Epinephrine, is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and cardiac arrest, not opioid overdose. Choice C, Lidocaine, is a local anesthetic used for numbing purposes and managing certain types of arrhythmias, not for opioid overdose. Choice D, Atropine, is used to treat bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning, and nerve agent toxicity, not opioid overdose.
5. Which medication is commonly prescribed for a patient with hypertension?
- A. Lisinopril
- B. Metformin
- C. Atorvastatin
- D. Aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Lisinopril. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed to patients with hypertension to manage their blood pressure. Metformin is used to treat type 2 diabetes, not hypertension (choice B). Atorvastatin is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels, not primarily prescribed for hypertension (choice C). Aspirin is used for its antiplatelet effects and in preventing cardiovascular events, but it is not a first-line treatment for hypertension (choice D). Therefore, Lisinopril is the most suitable choice for a patient with hypertension.
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