ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. A client has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should be made?
- A. Coffee with creamer
- B. Lettuce with sliced avocados
- C. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chronic pancreatitis requires a low-fat diet to reduce stress on the pancreas. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice is a suitable option as it is low in fat. Coffee with creamer and lettuce with sliced avocados are not recommended for individuals with chronic pancreatitis due to their fat content. Choosing options high in fat can exacerbate symptoms and increase the workload on the pancreas, worsening the condition.
2. Mrs. Mitchell has been given a copy of her diet. The nurse discusses the foods allowed on a 500-mg low sodium diet. These include:
- A. A ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread
- B. Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken
- C. A tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives
- D. Chicken bouillon
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken. Both mashed potatoes and broiled chicken are typically low in sodium content, making them suitable choices for a 500-mg low sodium diet. The other options, such as a ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread, a tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives, and chicken bouillon, may contain higher amounts of sodium and are not typically recommended for a low sodium diet.
3. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the healthcare professional make in the medical record?
- A. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
- C. Morphine 3.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- D. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous q 4 hr. PRN for pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct entry for documenting the prescription for morphine is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'. This entry accurately specifies the medication, dosage, route of administration, and frequency as prescribed by the provider. Options A, C, and D contain minor errors such as missing units of measurement or incorrect abbreviations, which could lead to misinterpretation or potential medication errors. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health records of five clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome?
- A. A client who experienced a near-drowning incident
- B. A client following coronary artery bypass graft surgery
- C. A client who has a hemoglobin of 15.1 g/dL
- D. A client who has dysphagia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe lung condition that can be triggered by various factors such as near-drowning incidents, surgeries like coronary artery bypass graft, and underlying conditions like dysphagia. Hemoglobin levels do not directly influence the risk of developing ARDS. A hemoglobin level of 15.1 g/dL falls within the normal range and does not predispose an individual to ARDS.
5. A client has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis and has been placed on a multi-medication regimen. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client related to ethambutol?
- A. Your urine can turn a dark orange.
- B. Watch for a change in the sclera of your eyes.
- C. Watch for any changes in vision.
- D. Take vitamin B6 daily.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ethambutol is associated with potential vision changes, including optic neuritis. Patients should be instructed to report any visual disturbances immediately to prevent permanent vision loss. Monitoring for changes in vision is crucial to detect any adverse effects early on and prevent serious complications.
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