Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased urine output.
• B. Hyperactive reflexes.
• C. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
• D. Facial weakness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facial weakness is a common finding in clients with Guillain-Barré syndrome due to muscle weakness. While increased urine output is not typically associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome, hyperactive reflexes are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or spinal cord injury. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not a classic finding in Guillain-Barré syndrome, making it an incorrect choice.

2. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Monitor for leg swelling
• B. Encourage ambulation
• C. Check for redness
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way for a healthcare provider to monitor a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to check for leg swelling. Leg swelling is a common symptom of DVT and monitoring for this sign is crucial for early detection and intervention. Encouraging ambulation may be beneficial for preventing DVT but is not the recommended method for monitoring an existing condition. Checking for redness may be useful in cases of superficial thrombophlebitis but is not specific to DVT. Monitoring oxygen saturation is more relevant for respiratory or cardiovascular conditions, not for DVT.

3. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Perform an ECG every 12 hours
• B. Place the client in a supine position while resting
• C. Draw a troponin level every 4 hours
• D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consultation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an acute myocardial infarction, it is important to involve the client in cardiac rehabilitation to help them recover and manage their condition effectively. Performing an ECG every 12 hours is not necessary unless there are specific indications for it. Placing the client in a supine position may not be ideal as it can increase venous return, potentially worsening cardiac workload. Drawing troponin levels every 4 hours is excessive and not recommended as troponin levels usually peak within 24-48 hours post-MI and then gradually decline.

4. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend as the best source of calcium?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Cheddar cheese
• C. Almonds
• D. Fortified orange juice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is a rich source of calcium and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. While broccoli and almonds also contain calcium, cheddar cheese provides a higher amount per serving. Fortified orange juice may contain added calcium, but it is not as concentrated a source as cheddar cheese. Therefore, the best choice for a client with osteoporosis seeking a high calcium food is cheddar cheese.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a wound infection and is receiving gentamicin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to detect an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Creatinine.
• B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST).
• C. White blood cell count.
• D. Serum glucose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Creatinine. Gentamicin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to impaired kidney function. Monitoring creatinine levels helps the nurse detect any potential kidney damage. Choice B, Aspartate aminotransferase (AST), is not typically affected by gentamicin. Choice C, White blood cell count, is not directly related to gentamicin adverse effects. Choice D, Serum glucose, is not specifically monitored for gentamicin adverse effects.

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