a nurse is assessing a client who has guillain barr syndrome which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facial weakness is a common finding in clients with Guillain-Barré syndrome due to muscle weakness. While increased urine output is not typically associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome, hyperactive reflexes are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or spinal cord injury. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not a classic finding in Guillain-Barré syndrome, making it an incorrect choice.

2. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

3. A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (AP) discussing care for a client in the elevator. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report the incident to the AP's charge nurse. This ensures that the issue is addressed internally and allows for proper handling of the situation. Contacting the client's family about the incident (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it could breach confidentiality and escalate the situation unnecessarily. Notifying the client's provider (Choice B) is not the most immediate and effective step to address the issue. Filing a complaint with the ethics committee (Choice C) should be reserved for serious ethical violations, and in this case, reporting to the charge nurse is the more practical and immediate course of action.

4. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

5. A client in end-stage osteoporosis is reporting severe pain, with a respiratory rate of 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be the highest priority to administer to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with severe pain like the one described, the priority medication to administer is a potent analgesic like hydromorphone. Hydromorphone is a strong opioid pain medication that can effectively manage severe pain. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antiemetic and antihistamine, not a pain medication. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is contraindicated in end-stage renal disease due to its potential to cause kidney damage. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, but it is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.

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