a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for a ct scan with contrast media the nurse should identify which of the followin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client scheduled for a CT scan with contrast media. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a contraindication to the procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, a history of allergy to shellfish. A known allergy to shellfish is a contraindication for the use of contrast media in a CT scan due to the potential risk of an allergic reaction, which could be severe and life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications to the procedure. A normal white blood cell count, urine specific gravity within the normal range, and a history of asthma do not typically interfere with the administration of contrast media for a CT scan.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. Sequential compression devices help prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of DVT by promoting blood flow in the legs. Massaging the client's legs every 2 hours (choice A) may dislodge a clot if present, leading to a higher risk of embolism. Instructing the client to sit with the legs crossed (choice B) can impede blood flow and increase the risk of DVT. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (choice C) is not indicated for preventing DVT, as antibiotics are used to treat infections caused by bacteria, not to prevent blood clots.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration in clients receiving enteral feedings is to elevate the head of the bed during feedings. This position helps prevent regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) increases the risk of aspiration as it promotes reflux. Administering feedings over 10 minutes (Choice B) does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Placing the client in a lateral position after feedings (Choice D) does not address the risk of aspiration during the feeding process.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about managing protein intake. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "You should limit your intake of high-protein foods." Clients with chronic kidney disease should reduce their intake of high-protein foods to lessen the workload on the kidneys and prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increasing intake of either plant-based or animal protein or high-protein foods can exacerbate kidney issues in individuals with chronic kidney disease.

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