ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.
2. A client is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.
- B. Massage the client's legs every 4 hours.
- C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
- D. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take for a client at risk for developing DVT is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation and reducing the risk of DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of DVT due to immobility. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and is contraindicated in DVT prevention. While administering anticoagulants as prescribed (Choice D) is a treatment for DVT, it is not a preventive measure for a client at risk.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who came to the clinic for a seasonal influenza immunization. The provider should identify that which of the following clients is a candidate to receive the vaccine via nasal spray rather than an injection?
- A. 1-year-old who has no health problems
- B. 17-year-old who has a hypersensitivity to Penicillin
- C. 25-year-old who is pregnant
- D. 52-year-old who takes a multivitamin supplement
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 17-year-old can receive the influenza vaccine via nasal spray even if they have a hypersensitivity to penicillin, as this is not a contraindication for the influenza immunization. The nasal spray vaccine (LAIV) is a live attenuated vaccine that is suitable for healthy individuals aged 2-49 years. Pregnancy (choice C) is a contraindication for the nasal spray influenza vaccine. Children under 2 years of age (choice A) are also not candidates for the nasal spray. Taking a multivitamin supplement (choice D) is not a determining factor for the type of influenza vaccine a person should receive.
4. James' illness can be classified as:
- A. Pneumonia
- B. Very severe illness
- C. Severe pneumonia
- D. No pneumonia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: James' illness can be classified as 'No pneumonia' because there are no general danger signs present, and his breathing rate is normal, indicating the absence of pneumonia.
5. A client with liver cirrhosis is experiencing confusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
- B. Ammonia 145 mcg/dL
- C. Albumin 4 g/dL
- D. Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia 145 mcg/dL. An elevated ammonia level can indicate hepatic encephalopathy in clients with liver cirrhosis, leading to confusion. Bilirubin (Choice A) is within the normal range, indicating adequate liver function. Albumin (Choice C) and Hemoglobin (Choice D) levels are also within normal limits and are not directly related to the client's confusion in this scenario.
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