a nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adver
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting protein intake is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease as it helps prevent further kidney damage. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (choice A) is not recommended for clients with kidney disease as high potassium levels can be harmful. Avoiding foods high in phosphorus (choice C) is important, but limiting protein intake is a higher priority. Increasing dairy product intake (choice D) is not ideal for clients with kidney disease as they may need to monitor their phosphorus intake from such foods.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a manifestation of opioid toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a common sign of opioid toxicity. When a client is experiencing opioid toxicity, the respiratory system is usually the most affected, leading to a decrease in the respiratory rate (bradypnea). Tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and diaphoresis (excessive sweating) are not typical manifestations of opioid toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradypnea.

4. A client scheduled for a thoracentesis requires assistance from a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to a sitting position. Placing the client in a sitting position helps facilitate easier access during the thoracentesis procedure by allowing gravity to assist in the removal of pleural fluid. Placing the client in a prone, supine, or lateral position would not provide the optimal positioning needed for a thoracentesis and could make the procedure more challenging or uncomfortable for the client.

5. A client is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using an abduction pillow between the client's legs is essential in maintaining proper alignment and preventing dislocation of the hip joint following a hip arthroplasty. Encouraging the client to lie flat in bed (Choice A) is not recommended as early mobilization is crucial for preventing complications. Applying heat to the incision site (Choice B) is not typically done immediately postoperatively. Placing a trochanter roll under the client's knees (Choice D) is not as beneficial as using an abduction pillow to maintain proper positioning.

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