a nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adver
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated bilirubin level in clients with cirrhosis indicates worsening liver function and potential complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly as it may require immediate medical intervention. Elevated ammonia levels (choice A) are also concerning in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but bilirubin levels are more specific to liver function in this context. Choices B and C are within normal ranges and are not typically of immediate concern in cirrhosis.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing dysphagia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dysphagia is to administer thickened liquids. Thickened liquids help prevent aspiration, which is a common risk for clients with swallowing difficulties. Providing small bites of food (choice B) can help, but the priority is to modify the liquid consistency. Encouraging the client to eat quickly (choice C) is not recommended as it may increase the risk of aspiration and fatigue. Having the client lie supine after meals (choice D) can actually increase the risk of aspiration, especially in clients with dysphagia.

4. How should a healthcare provider care for a patient who is refusing medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient refuses medication, it is essential for the healthcare provider to assess the reasons for refusal. This allows the provider to understand the patient's concerns, provide education or clarification if needed, and work collaboratively with the patient to find a solution. Exploring alternative treatment options may be necessary after understanding the reasons behind the refusal. Documenting the refusal is important for legal and continuity of care purposes, but it is not the initial action to take. Discontinuing the medication without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to potential harm and is not a recommended approach.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teach the client pursed-lip breathing technique. Pursed-lip breathing helps clients with COPD improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath. Choice A is incorrect because deep breathing and coughing are not recommended every 4 hours for clients with COPD. Choice B is incorrect because a diet high in carbohydrates and low in protein is not specifically indicated for COPD. Choice D is incorrect because fluid restriction is not a standard intervention for COPD unless the client has comorbid conditions that necessitate it.

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