ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse use to monitor the client's therapeutic response to the medication?
- A. INR
- B. aPTT
- C. Platelet count
- D. Hemoglobin A1C
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic response of warfarin. It helps ensure that the client's clotting time is within the desired range to prevent complications such as excessive bleeding or clotting. Choice B, aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy but rather for assessing heparin therapy. Choice C, Platelet count, assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specifically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, Hemoglobin A1C, is a test used to monitor long-term blood sugar control in diabetic patients and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy.
2. Because of increasing cases of fluorosis, low levels of fluoride are added to commercial infant formula. Breast milk provides low levels of fluoride.
- A. Both statements are true
- B. Both statements are false
- C. The first statement is true; the second is false
- D. The first statement is false; the second is true
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The first statement is false; fluoride is not added to infant formulas due to the risk of fluorosis. The second statement is true; breast milk contains low levels of fluoride.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postpartum and has a prescription for methylergonovine. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Headache
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Nausea
- D. Increased vaginal bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. Methylergonovine can cause vasoconstriction, leading to headaches. It is important for the client to report this adverse effect to the provider as it may indicate a serious complication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methylergonovine is not typically associated with diarrhea, nausea, or increased vaginal bleeding as common adverse effects.
4. What are three major causes of atherosclerosis?
- A. Hyperthyroidism, underweight, and poor appetite
- B. High blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking
- C. Constipation, peptic ulcer disease, and pancreatitis
- D. Kidney failure, edema, and sodium retention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: High blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking are three major causes of atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis is mainly attributed to the buildup of cholesterol-rich plaques in the arteries, high blood pressure causing damage to the arterial walls, and the harmful effects of cigarette smoking on blood vessels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary causes of atherosclerosis.
5. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with a provider?
- A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- B. Hyoscyamine
- C. Oxybutynin
- D. Phenazopyridine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin can worsen urinary retention, so the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Choice A) is a common antibiotic used to treat UTIs and does not require verification. Hyoscyamine (Choice B) is an anticholinergic medication used for bladder spasms and does not typically worsen UTI symptoms. Phenazopyridine (Choice D) is a urinary analgesic that helps relieve pain, burning, and discomfort caused by a UTI, which may not necessarily require verification in this scenario.
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