Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has tuberculosis and a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should have my vision checked regularly while taking this medication.
• B. This medication can cause my urine to turn reddish-orange.
• C. I need to wear sunscreen and protective clothing while taking this medication.
• D. I will discontinue this medication if I experience nausea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. Choice A is not related to rifampin; vision changes are not a common side effect of the medication. Choice C is more relevant to medications that cause photosensitivity reactions, not specifically rifampin. Choice D is incorrect because nausea is a common side effect of rifampin, but it does not warrant immediate discontinuation of the medication.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates bradycardia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. This situation requires immediate intervention to address the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever, fetal anemia, and chorioamnionitis may have other effects on the fetus but are not primary causes of bradycardia in this context.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with sepsis. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the client is developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

• A. Elevated hemoglobin
• B. Elevated white blood cell count
• C. Decreased fibrinogen level
• D. Decreased platelet count

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, decreased platelet count. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), there is widespread activation of clotting factors leading to the formation of multiple blood clots throughout the body, which can deplete platelets. A decreased platelet count is a hallmark of DIC. Elevated hemoglobin (choice A) and elevated white blood cell count (choice B) are not specific indicators of DIC. While fibrinogen levels (choice C) can be decreased in DIC due to consumption, a decreased platelet count is a more specific and early sign of DIC development.

4. A client is being taught how to perform self-catheterization. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Clean the catheter with alcohol after each use.
• B. Perform self-catheterization while sitting on the toilet.
• C. Use a new catheter each time you perform self-catheterization.
• D. Lubricate the catheter tip with petroleum jelly before insertion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a new catheter each time you perform self-catheterization.' It is essential to use a new, sterile catheter each time to prevent infection during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect because cleaning the catheter with alcohol may not be sufficient to prevent infection. Choice B is incorrect because self-catheterization is typically done in a clean, private area, not necessarily on the toilet. Choice D is incorrect because lubricating the catheter tip with petroleum jelly is a common practice but not as crucial as using a new catheter each time to prevent infection.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Chloride 100 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

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