ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect to be elevated?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum glucose.
- D. Serum amylase.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Serum amylase levels are typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis as it is an enzyme released by the pancreas. Elevated serum sodium, calcium, or glucose levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
2. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient with heart failure?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor input and output
- C. Check for edema
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In patients with heart failure, monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method for assessing fluid balance. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common issue in heart failure patients. Monitoring input and output (B) is essential but may not always accurately reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (C) is important as it can indicate fluid accumulation, but daily weight monitoring is more precise. Monitoring blood pressure (D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid vitamin K-rich foods.
- B. I will avoid using aspirin while on this medication.
- C. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
- D. I will increase my intake of leafy greens.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Warfarin's effectiveness is reduced by high intake of vitamin K-rich foods, so increasing their intake would contradict the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate statements for a client on warfarin therapy. Avoiding vitamin K-rich foods helps maintain the medication's effectiveness, avoiding aspirin reduces the risk of bleeding, and monitoring blood pressure is essential for overall health monitoring.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Positive Trousseau's sign
- B. Increased deep tendon reflexes
- C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- D. Weak, thready pulse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A positive Trousseau's sign is a key finding in clients with hypocalcemia, indicating neuromuscular irritability. The other choices are not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Increased deep tendon reflexes are more indicative of hypercalcemia. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in hyperactive bowel conditions or diarrhea, not specifically related to hypocalcemia. A weak, thready pulse may indicate cardiovascular issues, such as dehydration, but it is not a typical finding in hypocalcemia.
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