ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect to be elevated?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum glucose.
- D. Serum amylase.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Serum amylase levels are typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis as it is an enzyme released by the pancreas. Elevated serum sodium, calcium, or glucose levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. I should avoid lifting objects heavier than 5 pounds for 1 week.
- B. I can resume my usual activities after 2 weeks.
- C. I should expect to have pain in my right shoulder.
- D. I should follow a low-protein diet for 1 week.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pain in the right shoulder after a cholecystectomy is common due to residual gas from the procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. It is important to avoid heavy lifting for a longer period than just 1 week to prevent complications. Resuming usual activities after 2 weeks may not be appropriate depending on the individual's recovery. Following a low-protein diet is not a standard recommendation post-cholecystectomy.
3. A nurse is reviewing the results of an arterial blood gas analysis of a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following results should the nurse expect?
- A. PaO2 of 95 mm Hg
- B. PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg
- C. HCO3 of 24 mEq/L
- D. pH level of 7.35
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, there is impaired gas exchange, leading to retention of carbon dioxide (CO2) and subsequent respiratory acidosis. A PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg is higher than the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) and is indicative of respiratory acidosis in COPD. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with COPD. PaO2 may be decreased, HCO3 may be elevated to compensate for acidosis, and pH may be lower than 7.35 due to respiratory acidosis in COPD.
4. A nurse is assessing a school-age child who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Periorbital edema.
- B. Decreased frequency of urination.
- C. Enuresis.
- D. Diarrhea.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Enuresis is the correct finding to expect in a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. Enuresis, or involuntary urination, is a common symptom of UTIs in children. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is not typically associated with UTIs. Decreased frequency of urination (Choice B) is less likely in UTIs as there is often an increased urge to urinate. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a common symptom of UTIs and is more indicative of gastrointestinal issues.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
- B. Increased urinary output.
- C. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg.
- D. Decreased peripheral edema.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours is an indication that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid retention. This medication works by promoting diuresis, resulting in increased urine output, which could lead to weight loss. While increased urinary output (choice B) is a common effect of furosemide, weight loss is a more specific indicator of its effectiveness. Blood pressure (choice C) and decreased peripheral edema (choice D) can be influenced by various factors and are not direct indicators of furosemide's effectiveness in reducing fluid retention.
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