ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect to be elevated?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum glucose.
- D. Serum amylase.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Serum amylase levels are typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis as it is an enzyme released by the pancreas. Elevated serum sodium, calcium, or glucose levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place a pillow under the client's knees
- B. Keep the client's legs elevated
- C. Flex the client's knee every 2 hours
- D. Apply heat to the operative knee
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Keeping the client's legs elevated is the appropriate action to prevent venous thromboembolism following a total knee arthroplasty. Elevating the legs helps promote circulation and reduce the risk of blood clots. Placing a pillow under the client's knees may provide comfort but does not address the specific postoperative complication. Flexing the client's knee every 2 hours may be contraindicated as excessive movement can disrupt the surgical site. Applying heat to the operative knee is not recommended immediately postoperatively as it can increase swelling and discomfort.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
- B. Wear a surgical mask when entering the client's room.
- C. Place the client in droplet isolation.
- D. Place a surgical mask on the client when transporting them.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a negative pressure room. This action is necessary to prevent the spread of tuberculosis, as it is transmitted via airborne particles. Placing the client in droplet isolation (choice C) is not sufficient for tuberculosis, as it requires airborne precautions. Wearing a surgical mask (choice B) when entering the client's room may not provide adequate protection against airborne transmission. Placing a surgical mask on the client when transporting them (choice D) does not address the need for environmental controls to contain infectious particles.
4. What is the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Administer oxygen
- C. Administer corticosteroids
- D. Administer antihistamines
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock as it helps reverse the severe allergic reaction by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways for improved breathing. Oxygen (Choice B) can be administered after epinephrine to support oxygenation. Corticosteroids (Choice C) may be used to prevent a biphasic reaction but are not the initial intervention. Antihistamines (Choice D) can help with itching and hives but do not address the life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Gastric residual of 200 mL
- B. Heart rate of 100/min
- C. Urinary output of 250 mL in 12 hr
- D. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL is higher than expected and should be reported to prevent hyperglycemia complications. High blood glucose levels can lead to hyperglycemia, causing various issues such as increased risk of infection and delayed wound healing. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client receiving continuous enteral feedings and do not require immediate reporting.
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