Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect to be elevated?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum calcium.
• C. Serum glucose.
• D. Serum amylase.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Serum amylase levels are typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis as it is an enzyme released by the pancreas. Elevated serum sodium, calcium, or glucose levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

2. When teaching a client about nutritional intake, what should be included?

• A. Carbohydrates should be at least 45% of your caloric intake.
• B. Protein should be at least 55% of your caloric intake.
• C. Carbohydrates should be at least 30% of your caloric intake.
• D. Protein should be at least 60% of your caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a client about nutritional intake, it is important to mention that carbohydrates should constitute at least 45% of their daily caloric intake for a balanced diet. This macronutrient provides energy and is essential for proper bodily functions. Choice B is incorrect because protein should typically account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is too low for the recommended carbohydrate intake, as it should be higher at 45%. Choice D is incorrect as protein intake should generally be around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.

3. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. White blood cell count 8,000/mm3
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, a side effect of methotrexate, and should be reported. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate potential complications related to methotrexate therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
• B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
• C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
• D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing acute mania and having obtained a verbal prescription for restraints, the nurse must ensure to obtain a formal written prescription for restraint within 4 hours. This is crucial to maintain the safety and proper care of the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because renewing the prescription every 8 hours, checking pulse rate every 30 minutes, and documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes do not address the immediate need for a formal restraint prescription within 4 hours to manage the client's acute mania effectively.

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