Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving radiation therapy for cancer. Which of the following skin care instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Apply alcohol-free lotions to your skin to prevent dryness.
• B. Avoid exposing the irradiated area to direct sunlight.
• C. Cleanse the irradiated area with mild soap and water.
• D. Apply ice packs to the irradiated area to prevent swelling.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid exposing the irradiated area to direct sunlight. Direct sunlight can further damage the skin during radiation therapy. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol-based lotions can irritate the skin further. Choice C is incorrect because mild soap and water can be drying to the skin. Choice D is incorrect because applying ice packs can cause additional skin damage during radiation therapy.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Continuous murmur.
• B. Absent peripheral pulses.
• C. Increased blood pressure.
• D. Bounding pulses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report?

• A. Serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL
• B. Blood glucose level 120 mg/dL
• C. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
• D. Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL. A low serum albumin level indicates protein deficiency, which can be a complication of TPN therapy and requires prompt intervention. The other laboratory findings provided (serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL, blood glucose level 120 mg/dL, and serum sodium 138 mEq/L) are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate complications related to TPN therapy.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. JVD.
• C. Crackles in the lungs.
• D. Hypotension.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: JVD. Jugular venous distention (JVD) is a common finding in right-sided heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the right side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood, leading to congestion and increased venous pressure, which is manifested as JVD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure. Crackles in the lungs (choice C) are indicative of pulmonary edema, often seen in left-sided heart failure. Hypotension (choice D) is not typically seen in right-sided heart failure, as it is more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Chloride 100 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

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