ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has DVT. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Limit the client's fluid intake to 1500 mL per day
- B. Avoid massaging the affected extremity to relieve pain
- C. Avoid applying cold packs to the client's affected extremity
- D. Elevate the client's affected extremity when in bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with DVT is to elevate the affected extremity when in bed. Elevation helps reduce swelling by promoting venous return. Limiting fluid intake could lead to dehydration and is not recommended. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot, leading to serious complications. Applying cold packs can cause vasoconstriction and should be avoided in DVT.
2. A client with liver cirrhosis is experiencing confusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
- B. Ammonia 145 mcg/dL
- C. Albumin 4 g/dL
- D. Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia 145 mcg/dL. An elevated ammonia level can indicate hepatic encephalopathy in clients with liver cirrhosis, leading to confusion. Bilirubin (Choice A) is within the normal range, indicating adequate liver function. Albumin (Choice C) and Hemoglobin (Choice D) levels are also within normal limits and are not directly related to the client's confusion in this scenario.
3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient with a central line for infection?
- A. Monitor the dressing site daily
- B. Check for redness and swelling
- C. Monitor for fever
- D. Flush the central line
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the dressing site daily is crucial for detecting early signs of infection in patients with central lines. Checking for redness and swelling (choice B) is important but may indicate a more advanced stage of infection. Monitoring for fever (choice C) can also be a sign of infection, but it is a later manifestation. Flushing the central line (choice D) is necessary for maintaining patency but does not directly monitor for infection.
4. A client has a central venous catheter. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent an air embolism?
- A. Keep the catheter clamped when not in use
- B. Have the client perform the Valsalva maneuver while the catheter is removed
- C. Use a non-coring needle to access the catheter
- D. Flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride every 24 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to prevent an air embolism in a client with a central venous catheter is to have the client perform the Valsalva maneuver while the catheter is removed. This maneuver helps to close the airway and prevent air from entering the bloodstream. Keeping the catheter clamped at all times (Choice A) is not necessary and may lead to clot formation. Using a non-coring needle (Choice C) is important for accessing the catheter but does not specifically prevent air embolism. Flushing the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice D) helps maintain patency but does not directly prevent air embolism.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. Increased shortness of breath.
- B. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb).
- C. Clear lung sounds.
- D. Bounding pulse.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate a therapeutic effect of furosemide, as the medication helps reduce fluid overload in heart failure. Choice A, increased shortness of breath, is incorrect as furosemide is used to relieve symptoms like shortness of breath. Choice B, weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb), is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid retention leading to weight loss. Choice D, bounding pulse, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact the pulse rate.
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