Nursing Elites

1. Which lab test is used to assess renal function?

• A. Check blood glucose levels
• B. Monitor serum creatinine
• C. Monitor BUN
• D. Check electrolyte levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor serum creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of renal function as it reflects the glomerular filtration rate. An increase in serum creatinine levels indicates impaired kidney function. Checking blood glucose levels (choice A) is not specific to assessing renal function but is used to diagnose diabetes. Monitoring BUN (choice C) is important but not as specific as serum creatinine in assessing renal function. Checking electrolyte levels (choice D) is essential in assessing kidney function but is not as specific as monitoring serum creatinine.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

3. A client with a new colostomy requires care planning by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Change the ostomy pouch every 4 to 7 days.
• B. Empty the ostomy pouch when it is half full.
• C. Apply a skin barrier around the stoma.
• D. Cleanse the peristomal skin with alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the ostomy pouch every 4 to 7 days. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and leakage by maintaining a clean and secure seal around the stoma. Option B is incorrect because it is more important to change the pouch regularly rather than emptying it when half full. Option C is incorrect as applying a skin barrier is typically done during the initial application of the pouch, not during regular changes. Option D is incorrect because alcohol can be too harsh for the peristomal skin and can cause irritation.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Piloerection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following items should the nurse offer to the client?

• A. Tomato soup
• B. Apple juice
• C. Chicken broth
• D. Cranberry juice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Chicken broth. A clear liquid diet includes clear fluids and foods that are liquid at room temperature. Chicken broth is allowed on a clear liquid diet as it is a clear liquid, while tomato soup, apple juice, and cranberry juice are not clear liquids. Tomato soup is a thicker substance and not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Apple juice and cranberry juice are also not clear liquids because they contain pulp and are not transparent like broth.

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