Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new diagnosis of celiac disease. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Steatorrhea
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Sunken abdomen
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Celiac disease is a condition where individuals are unable to digest gluten, leading to damage in the bowel cells and subsequent malabsorption. This malabsorption commonly presents with symptoms such as steatorrhea, which is characterized by foul-smelling, greasy, and bulky stools due to high fat content. Projectile vomiting and sunken abdomen are not typical manifestations of celiac disease. Weight gain is unlikely in individuals with celiac disease due to malabsorption and nutrient deficiencies. Therefore, the nurse should expect steatorrhea as a clinical manifestation in clients with celiac disease.

2. Which statement is true concerning early intervention services for children 0-2 years?

• A. Only healthcare professionals can determine if the child is eligible for services
• B. Specific diagnoses are not required to qualify for services
• C. Families must not pay for services
• D. Services are provided to a diverse group of children and families

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Early intervention services aim to support a diverse group of children and families without the need for a specific diagnosis. These services are inclusive and provided to all eligible children and families, regardless of their background or particular condition.

3. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

4. When planning care for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, which is the priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion
• B. Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern
• C. Acute Pain
• D. Risk for Aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula is 'Risk for Aspiration' because of the potential respiratory complications associated with these conditions. The newborn is at a higher risk of aspirating oral or gastric contents due to the abnormal connections between the esophagus and trachea, posing a serious threat to the airway and lungs. Addressing this risk is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and maintain the airway's patency, making it the priority nursing diagnosis in this scenario. 'Ineffective Tissue Perfusion' is not the priority as respiratory compromise takes precedence over perfusion concerns. 'Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern' may be relevant but addressing the risk of aspiration is more critical. 'Acute Pain' is not the priority compared to the life-threatening risk of aspiration.

5. What does a Z-score of -3.00 indicate?

• A. The child's score indicates he is ahead of his peers and performing well
• B. The child's score places him within normal limits on this test item
• C. The test is inconclusive
• D. The child's score falls below the majority of his peers on this test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A Z-score of -3.00 indicates that the child's performance is significantly below the average of their peers. It represents an extreme low score, indicating a substantial deviation from the mean performance of the group.

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