Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new diagnosis of celiac disease. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Steatorrhea
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Sunken abdomen
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Celiac disease is a condition where individuals are unable to digest gluten, leading to damage in the bowel cells and subsequent malabsorption. This malabsorption commonly presents with symptoms such as steatorrhea, which is characterized by foul-smelling, greasy, and bulky stools due to high fat content. Projectile vomiting and sunken abdomen are not typical manifestations of celiac disease. Weight gain is unlikely in individuals with celiac disease due to malabsorption and nutrient deficiencies. Therefore, the nurse should expect steatorrhea as a clinical manifestation in clients with celiac disease.

2. When teaching a parent of a 2-month-old infant with acute gastroenteritis who is bottle feeding, which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. Offer Pedialyte between formula feedings.
• B. Feed the infant every 6 hours.
• C. Give diluted apple juice if the infant becomes dehydrated.
• D. Switch to soy-based formula permanently.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of acute gastroenteritis in a 2-month-old infant who is bottle feeding, the nurse should recommend offering Pedialyte between formula feedings. This helps prevent dehydration and ensures that the infant receives essential electrolytes and fluids to aid in recovery. Pedialyte is specifically formulated to help replace lost fluids and electrolytes due to vomiting and diarrhea, making it a suitable choice for infants with gastroenteritis. Choice B is incorrect because infants with acute gastroenteritis should be fed more frequently to prevent dehydration. Choice C is incorrect as apple juice is not recommended for infants with gastroenteritis; Pedialyte or oral rehydration solutions are preferred. Choice D is incorrect because switching to soy-based formula permanently is not necessary for managing acute gastroenteritis; Pedialyte and continuing with the current formula are more appropriate.

3. Parents are speaking with the urologist about their son's undescended testicle. Which statement by the child's father causes the nurse to determine he understands the information presented?

• A. An undescended testicle can reduce fertility.
• B. The testicle usually descends spontaneously during the first month of life.
• C. Surgical correction reduces the risk for testicular tumors.
• D. The optimal time to surgically correct the condition is at diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an undescended testicle can reduce fertility. Even after surgical correction (orchiopexy), fertility rates may be reduced, especially when one testis remains undescended. The statement in choice B is incorrect as the testicle should have descended into the scrotum by the time the infant is 4-6 months old. While choice C is true that surgical correction can reduce the risk of testicular tumors, the question focuses on the father's understanding of the information presented, which is better reflected in choice A. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal time for surgical correction of an undescended testicle is typically around 6-18 months of age, not necessarily at the time of diagnosis.

4. A 4-year-old client with intractable seizures has been on a ketogenic diet for the last 6 months, with a decrease in seizure activity. This child is now admitted to the pediatric unit with left-sided pain. Which possible complication to this diet does the nurse suspect?

• A. Appendicitis
• B. Bowel obstruction
• C. Urinary tract infection
• D. Kidney stones

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ketogenic diet increases the risk of kidney stones.

5. In the management of heart failure, which diuretic is preferred due to its demonstrated significant mortality reduction in patients with heart failure?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Mannitol (Osmitrol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is the preferred choice in heart failure due to its cardio-protective effect, leading to reduced mortality in patients with heart failure. It is used to manage both hypertension and edema, making it a valuable option in heart failure treatment.

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