Nursing Elites

1. In the management of heart failure, which diuretic is preferred due to its demonstrated significant mortality reduction in patients with heart failure?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Mannitol (Osmitrol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is the preferred choice in heart failure due to its cardio-protective effect, leading to reduced mortality in patients with heart failure. It is used to manage both hypertension and edema, making it a valuable option in heart failure treatment.

2. When teaching a parent of a 2-month-old infant with acute gastroenteritis who is bottle feeding, which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. Offer Pedialyte between formula feedings.
• B. Feed the infant every 6 hours.
• C. Give diluted apple juice if the infant becomes dehydrated.
• D. Switch to soy-based formula permanently.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of acute gastroenteritis in a 2-month-old infant who is bottle feeding, the nurse should recommend offering Pedialyte between formula feedings. This helps prevent dehydration and ensures that the infant receives essential electrolytes and fluids to aid in recovery. Pedialyte is specifically formulated to help replace lost fluids and electrolytes due to vomiting and diarrhea, making it a suitable choice for infants with gastroenteritis. Choice B is incorrect because infants with acute gastroenteritis should be fed more frequently to prevent dehydration. Choice C is incorrect as apple juice is not recommended for infants with gastroenteritis; Pedialyte or oral rehydration solutions are preferred. Choice D is incorrect because switching to soy-based formula permanently is not necessary for managing acute gastroenteritis; Pedialyte and continuing with the current formula are more appropriate.

3. When discussing the correction of hypospadias in a newborn, what does the nurse explain about this condition?

• A. No intervention is required as the defect will correct itself over time.
• B. Surgical repair of hypospadias is typically performed before 18 months of age.
• C. Corrective surgery is commonly postponed until preschool age.
• D. Repairing the defect does not increase the risk of testicular cancer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis. Surgical repair is the primary treatment for hypospadias and is usually recommended to be done before 18 months of age. This timing is preferred for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes. Waiting until preschool age for corrective surgery may increase the complexity of the procedure and potential complications. Correcting hypospadias does not impact the risk of testicular cancer.

4. In caring for an adolescent with severe abdominal pain due to appendicitis, where should the nurse identify as McBurney's point?

• A. Right lower quadrant
• B. Left lower quadrant
• C. Right upper quadrant
• D. Left upper quadrant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: McBurney's point is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, specifically between the umbilicus and the anterior iliac crest. This point is significant in diagnosing appendicitis, as tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis and indicates inflammation near the appendix. Therefore, the correct answer is the 'Right lower quadrant.' Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because McBurney's point is not located in the left lower quadrant, right upper quadrant, or left upper quadrant of the abdomen.

5. The nurse is providing care for a pediatric client in the emergency department (ED) with a diagnosis of decreased level of consciousness (LOC) secondary to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which healthcare provider order should the nurse question?

• A. Passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion
• B. Oxygen at 2 L nasal cannula to maintain saturation above 95%
• C. Hourly vital signs and neurologic checks
• D. Elevate head of bed 30 degrees

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a pediatric client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and decreased level of consciousness (LOC), passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion should be questioned as they can potentially increase intracranial pressure. This action may not be safe for the client's condition. The other options are appropriate interventions for managing a pediatric client with increased ICP and decreased LOC.

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