Nursing Elites

1. How does an occupational therapist use clinical guidelines to inform practice with children and youth?

• A. Modify guidelines to fit the specific environment
• B. Establish systems to monitor outcomes
• C. Select the most recent guidelines without considering the client
• D. Consider guidelines that fit one's clientele and environment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using clinical guidelines to inform practice with children and youth, it is crucial for occupational therapists to not solely rely on the most recent guidelines but to consider the individual needs and contexts of each client. Selecting guidelines based solely on recency without considering the specific client can lead to ineffective or inappropriate interventions.

2. Why is it important to share information with the family about why you are asking certain things as you evaluate the child?

• A. It helps them to understand the role of occupational therapy
• B. It establishes your goals with the family up front
• C. It communicates your level of expertise to the family
• D. It allows them to understand your point of view

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sharing information with the family about the reasons for your questions is crucial as it helps them comprehend the purpose and role of occupational therapy in the evaluation process. This transparency fosters trust, collaboration, and empowers families to actively engage in the therapy journey. Choice B is incorrect because while it is essential to establish goals with the family, the focus here is on sharing information about the evaluation process. Choice C is incorrect as the main purpose is not to showcase expertise but rather to involve the family in understanding the assessment. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal is not for the family to understand your point of view, but rather the purpose of the evaluation within the occupational therapy context.

3. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating an infant with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should be the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?

• A. Nasal flaring
• B. WBC count of 11,300
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Abdominal distension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing an infant with pneumonia, the priority finding to report to the provider is nasal flaring. Nasal flaring indicates acute respiratory distress, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing respiratory distress take precedence over other symptoms or laboratory results in this situation.

4. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient being started on levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) for newly diagnosed Parkinson�s disease?

• A. Take medication on a full stomach
• B. Change positions slowly
• C. The drug may cause the urine to be very dilute
• D. Carbidopa has many adverse effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postural hypotension is common early in treatment, so the patient should be instructed to change positions slowly. Administration with meals should be avoided, if possible, because food delays the absorption of the levodopa component. If the patient is experiencing side effects of nausea and vomiting, administration with food may be considered. The levodopa component may darken urine. Carbidopa has no adverse effects of its own.

5. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

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