ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Ataxia.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
2. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Check oxygen saturation
- D. Perform a neurological exam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen. Post-surgery, confusion in a patient could be due to hypoxia, a condition where the body is deprived of an adequate oxygen supply. Administering oxygen helps address hypoxia promptly, improving oxygen levels in the body and potentially resolving the confusion. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and performing a neurological exam may be important interventions but addressing hypoxia with oxygen administration takes precedence as the priority action.
3. A client is taking sucralfate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication 1 hour before meals.
- B. I should take this medication 30 minutes after meals.
- C. I should take this medication only when I have symptoms of heartburn.
- D. I should take this medication with a glass of milk.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sucralfate is most effective when taken 1 hour before meals to protect the stomach lining. Option B is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken after meals. Option C is incorrect because sucralfate is typically taken on a regular schedule, not just when symptoms occur. Option D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with milk, as it can interfere with its effectiveness.
4. While caring for a client receiving an opioid analgesic for pain management, which assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Monitor the client's urinary output.
- B. Check the client's blood pressure.
- C. Assess the client for constipation.
- D. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioids, the priority assessment is the respiratory rate since opioids can lead to respiratory depression. Monitoring urinary output, blood pressure, and constipation are also important but not the priority in this scenario.
5. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic heart failure?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Provide fluid restriction
- C. Administer diuretics
- D. Monitor intake and output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is crucial in managing patients with chronic heart failure as it helps assess fluid balance. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to detect any sudden weight gain, which could indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure. This intervention helps in adjusting treatment plans promptly. Providing fluid restriction (Choice B) can be a part of managing heart failure but is not the primary intervention mentioned in the question. Administering diuretics (Choice C) is a treatment modality for heart failure but does not encompass the comprehensive approach to patient management. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not specifically address the direct assessment of fluid status as daily weight monitoring does.
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