Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Ataxia.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum calcium.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so serum potassium should be monitored to evaluate its effectiveness. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are not directly affected by spironolactone and would not provide an accurate assessment of the medication's effectiveness.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees during feedings.
• B. Place the client in the left lateral position for 30 minutes after feedings.
• C. Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding.
• D. Check gastric residuals every 8 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to prevent aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This positioning helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Placing the client in the left lateral position after feedings does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the tube with sterile water before each feeding is important for tube patency but does not specifically prevent aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours is necessary to monitor the client's tolerance to feedings but is not a direct preventive measure against aspiration.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hgb 10 g/dL
• B. Platelets 300,000/mm³
• C. WBC count 12,000/mm³
• D. BUN 18 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hgb 10 g/dL. A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is below the normal range for a pregnant client, indicating possible anemia, which is crucial to report during pregnancy to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Platelets, WBC count, and BUN levels within the listed values are generally within normal ranges for a pregnant individual at 28 weeks of gestation. Platelets play a role in blood clotting, WBC count helps in fighting infections, and BUN measures kidney function, all of which are typically expected to be within normal limits during pregnancy.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Hypertension
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria is the correct answer. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability to concentrate urine, leading to excessive urination (polyuria) and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. While dehydration from the excessive urination can lead to hypotension rather than hypertension, and weight loss can occur due to fluid loss, the most specific and significant finding expected in diabetes insipidus is polyuria.

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