Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is observing bonding between a client and her newborn. Which of the following actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene?

• A. Holding the newborn in an en face position
• B. Asking the father to change the newborn's diaper
• C. Requesting the nurse to take the newborn to the nursery so she can rest
• D. Viewing the newborn's actions as uncooperative

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viewing the newborn's actions as uncooperative indicates a lack of bonding, which requires intervention. Choices A, B, and C all involve appropriate and caring actions by the client towards the newborn. Holding the newborn in an en face position promotes bonding, involving the father in caring for the newborn is beneficial for family involvement, and requesting rest by asking the nurse to take the newborn to the nursery is a responsible action to ensure both the client and the newborn get adequate rest.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lipsmacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a key finding in clients with diabetes insipidus due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. Weight gain (choice A) is not expected in diabetes insipidus as it is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination leading to fluid loss. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with diabetes insipidus.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Redness at the insertion site.
• B. Swelling of the arm above the insertion site.
• C. A bruised area around the insertion site.
• D. A temperature of 37.2°C (99°F).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swelling of the arm above the insertion site is concerning as it can indicate complications like thrombosis, which require immediate attention. Redness at the insertion site is common and expected in the initial stages. A bruised area around the insertion site may result from the insertion procedure and is usually not alarming unless it worsens or becomes larger. A temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) is within the normal range and is not directly related to PICC complications.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Grilled chicken.
• B. Fresh fruit.
• C. White bread.
• D. Cheddar cheese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

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