ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is reviewing the facility's safety protocols concerning newborn abduction with the parent of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Staff will apply the identification band after the first bath.
- B. I will not make public announcements about my baby's birth.
- C. I can remove my baby's identification band as long as they are in my room.
- D. I can leave my baby in my room while walking in the hallway.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Not making public announcements about the baby's birth is crucial in preventing newborn abduction as it avoids exposing personal information. Choice A is incorrect because the identification band should be applied immediately after birth, not after the first bath. Choice C is incorrect as the baby's identification band should never be removed by the parent. Choice D is incorrect as parents should not leave their baby unattended in the room while they are outside the room.
2. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, with a fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for 15 minutes, the nurse should suspect maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can result in fetal bradycardia, which is defined as an FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Maternal hypoglycemia requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to present with other signs such as pallor or tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is characterized by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, but it is not directly linked to the FHR baseline being 100/min.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone IM to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication using a tuberculin syringe
- B. Administer the medication at a 45-degree angle
- C. Use the dorsogluteal muscle for injection
- D. Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: When administering intramuscular injections like ceftriaxone, it is essential to aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication to ensure that the needle is not in a blood vessel. Choices A and B are incorrect because ceftriaxone is typically administered using a syringe appropriate for IM injections (not a tuberculin syringe) and injected at a 90-degree angle rather than 45 degrees. Choice C is incorrect because the dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for IM injections due to potential injury to the sciatic nerve and other structures.
4. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?
- A. Administer isoniazid by mouth daily.
- B. Place the client in droplet isolation.
- C. Wear a surgical mask when transporting the client.
- D. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.
5. When documenting an incorrect dose of medication administered, which fact related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?
- A. Time the medication was given
- B. The client's response to the medication
- C. The dose that was administered
- D. Reason for the error
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should document the time the medication was given in the client's medical record when an incorrect dose is administered. Recording the time is crucial for establishing the sequence of events accurately. Choices B, C, and D, though important, are not directly relevant to documenting the incident of administering an incorrect dose of medication. The client's response to the medication, the actual dose administered, and the reason for the error may be documented for overall patient care but are not specifically required in the incident report for an incorrect dose.
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