ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with preterm labor is being admitted. The nurse anticipates a prescription by the provider for which of the following medications?
- A. Prostaglandin E2
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Methylergonovine
- D. Oxytocin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Indomethacin is used to delay premature labor by inhibiting uterine contractions. Prostaglandin E2, Methylergonovine, and Oxytocin are not typically used to manage preterm labor. Prostaglandin E2 can be used for cervical ripening and labor induction. Methylergonovine is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is used for labor induction and augmentation of labor in term pregnancies.
2. A client who was admitted to the maternity unit at 38 weeks of gestation and who is experiencing polyhydramnios is found to have which of the following?
- A. The client is carrying more than one fetus
- B. There is an elevated level of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid
- C. An excessive amount of amniotic fluid is present
- D. The fetus is likely to have a congenital anomaly, be growth restricted, or demonstrate fetal distress during labor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Polyhydramnios refers to the presence of an excessive amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus. This condition can result from various causes, such as maternal diabetes, fetal anomalies, or genetic disorders. It can lead to complications during pregnancy and delivery, such as preterm labor, placental abruption, or fetal malpresentation. Understanding this diagnosis is crucial for providing appropriate care and monitoring to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.
3. A client in labor at 40 weeks of gestation has saturated two perineal pads in the past 30 min. The nurse suspects placenta previa. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
- A. Examination to determine cervical status
- B. A magnesium sulfate infusion
- C. Initiation of pushing
- D. Preparation for cesarean birth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which is concerning for placenta previa. The appropriate nursing action in this situation is to prepare for a cesarean birth. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor. It is crucial to avoid vaginal examinations or initiation of pushing as these actions can exacerbate bleeding. A magnesium sulfate infusion is not indicated in the management of placenta previa. Therefore, the priority intervention is to prepare for a cesarean birth to ensure the safety of the mother and the baby.
4. A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
- A. A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain
- B. A client who has preeclampsia with a BP of 138/90 mm Hg
- C. A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hours ago and reports no bleeding
- D. A client who is scheduled for discharge following a laparoscopic tubal ligation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain first. Pain assessment and management are crucial post-cesarean birth to ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Immediate attention is needed to address the client's pain and provide appropriate interventions. The other clients may require attention but do not have an immediate postoperative concern like pain following a cesarean birth.
5. A client in a prenatal clinic is being taught by a nurse in her second trimester with a new diagnosis of gestational diabetes. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should limit my carbohydrates to 50% of caloric intake.
- B. I will reduce my exercise schedule to 3 days a week.
- C. I will take my glyburide daily with breakfast.
- D. I know I am at increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B, 'I will reduce my exercise schedule to 3 days a week,' indicates a need for further teaching. Regular exercise is beneficial in managing gestational diabetes and should not be reduced without proper guidance. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate understanding and appropriate actions in managing gestational diabetes.
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