ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with preterm labor is being admitted. The nurse anticipates a prescription by the provider for which of the following medications?
- A. Prostaglandin E2
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Methylergonovine
- D. Oxytocin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Indomethacin is used to delay premature labor by inhibiting uterine contractions. Prostaglandin E2, Methylergonovine, and Oxytocin are not typically used to manage preterm labor. Prostaglandin E2 can be used for cervical ripening and labor induction. Methylergonovine is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is used for labor induction and augmentation of labor in term pregnancies.
2. A client at 22 weeks of gestation with uncontrolled gestational diabetes mellitus may require medication. Which of the following medications would the provider likely prescribe?
- A. Acarbose
- B. Repaglinide
- C. Glyburide
- D. Glipizide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Glyburide is commonly prescribed for gestational diabetes mellitus when diet and exercise are insufficient to control blood sugar levels. It is considered safe and effective during pregnancy, making it a suitable choice for managing diabetes in pregnant individuals. Acarbose, Repaglinide, and Glipizide are not typically recommended for use in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.
3. A client in a prenatal clinic is being taught by a nurse in her second trimester with a new diagnosis of gestational diabetes. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should limit my carbohydrates to 50% of caloric intake.
- B. I will reduce my exercise schedule to 3 days a week.
- C. I will take my glyburide daily with breakfast.
- D. I know I am at increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B, 'I will reduce my exercise schedule to 3 days a week,' indicates a need for further teaching. Regular exercise is beneficial in managing gestational diabetes and should not be reduced without proper guidance. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate understanding and appropriate actions in managing gestational diabetes.
4. A client who is 4 hours postpartum following a vaginal delivery is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Saturated perineal pad in 30 minutes
- B. Deep tendon reflexes 4+
- C. Fundus at the level of the umbilicus
- D. Approximated edges of episiotomy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client who is 4 hours postpartum, a saturated perineal pad within 30 minutes is a priority finding as it may indicate excessive postpartum bleeding (hemorrhage), which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as hypovolemic shock. Deep tendon reflexes being 4+ is within normal limits postpartum. The fundus at the level of the umbilicus is an expected finding at this time frame, indicating proper involution of the uterus. Approximated edges of an episiotomy suggest proper healing.
5. A client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth has a history of thromboembolic disease. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Apply warm, moist heat to the client's lower extremities.
- B. Massage the client's posterior lower legs.
- C. Place pillows under the client's knees when resting in bed.
- D. Have the client ambulate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth with a history of thromboembolic disease is to have the client ambulate. Early ambulation is crucial in preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis in postpartum clients. Applying warm, moist heat, massaging the legs, or placing pillows under the knees do not directly address the risk of thromboembolic disease in this scenario.
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