ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023
1. A newborn is born to a mother with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. The newborn is macrosomic and presents with respiratory distress syndrome. The most likely cause of the respiratory distress is which of the following?
- A. Hyperinsulinemia
- B. Increased deposits of fat in the chest and shoulder area
- C. Brachial plexus injury
- D. Increased blood viscosity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hyperinsulinemia. In infants born to mothers with poorly controlled diabetes, the excess glucose crosses the placenta, leading to fetal hyperglycemia. This results in fetal hyperinsulinemia, which in turn can cause macrosomia (large birth weight), increasing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome due to the immature lungs' inability to handle the increased workload. Hyperinsulinemia, not increased deposits of fat, brachial plexus injury, or increased blood viscosity, is the most likely cause of respiratory distress in this scenario.
2. A client at 22 weeks of gestation with uncontrolled gestational diabetes mellitus may require medication. Which of the following medications would the provider likely prescribe?
- A. Acarbose
- B. Repaglinide
- C. Glyburide
- D. Glipizide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Glyburide is commonly prescribed for gestational diabetes mellitus when diet and exercise are insufficient to control blood sugar levels. It is considered safe and effective during pregnancy, making it a suitable choice for managing diabetes in pregnant individuals. Acarbose, Repaglinide, and Glipizide are not typically recommended for use in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.
3. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes has an oral temperature of 38.9�C (102�F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
- A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours
- B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly
- C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid
- D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a pregnant woman with a temperature of 38.9�C (102�F) in early labor with ruptured membranes, assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid is crucial. Foul-smelling or malodorous amniotic fluid could indicate infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which poses risks to both the woman and the fetus. This assessment can help in determining if an infection is present and prompt appropriate interventions. Rechecking the temperature, administering glucocorticoids, or preparing for an emergency cesarean section are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. The provider should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?
- A. Hydrops fetalis
- B. Hypobilirubinemia
- C. Biliary atresia
- D. Transient clotting difficulties
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin is given to Rh-negative individuals to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) caused by Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. If an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a risk of sensitization during pregnancy or childbirth. Sensitization can lead to the production of antibodies that may attack Rh-positive red blood cells in future pregnancies, potentially causing severe hemolytic disease in the newborn, including complications like hydrops fetalis. Hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by severe edema and fetal organ enlargement due to severe anemia and heart failure in the fetus.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients on an intrapartum unit. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider immediately?
- A. A tearful client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions
- B. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors
- C. A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes
- D. A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and an unresolved headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reporting epigastric pain and an unresolved headache. These symptoms indicate severe preeclampsia, which requires immediate medical attention due to the potential risks of complications such as HELLP syndrome or eclampsia. The other options describe concerning situations but do not represent immediate life-threatening conditions like those seen in severe preeclampsia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access