ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023
1. A newborn is born to a mother with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. The newborn is macrosomic and presents with respiratory distress syndrome. The most likely cause of the respiratory distress is which of the following?
- A. Hyperinsulinemia
- B. Increased deposits of fat in the chest and shoulder area
- C. Brachial plexus injury
- D. Increased blood viscosity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hyperinsulinemia. In infants born to mothers with poorly controlled diabetes, the excess glucose crosses the placenta, leading to fetal hyperglycemia. This results in fetal hyperinsulinemia, which in turn can cause macrosomia (large birth weight), increasing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome due to the immature lungs' inability to handle the increased workload. Hyperinsulinemia, not increased deposits of fat, brachial plexus injury, or increased blood viscosity, is the most likely cause of respiratory distress in this scenario.
2. A client in a prenatal clinic is being taught by a nurse in her second trimester with a new diagnosis of gestational diabetes. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should limit my carbohydrates to 50% of caloric intake.
- B. I will reduce my exercise schedule to 3 days a week.
- C. I will take my glyburide daily with breakfast.
- D. I know I am at increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B, 'I will reduce my exercise schedule to 3 days a week,' indicates a need for further teaching. Regular exercise is beneficial in managing gestational diabetes and should not be reduced without proper guidance. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate understanding and appropriate actions in managing gestational diabetes.
3. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion?
- A. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes
- B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
- C. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours
- D. Heart rate of 56/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 16/min within the normal range is an essential parameter to monitor when administering magnesium sulfate, as respiratory depression is a potential adverse effect. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, warranting immediate intervention. A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is below the expected amount, suggesting decreased kidney perfusion, which can be exacerbated by magnesium sulfate. A heart rate of 56/min is bradycardic and may indicate magnesium toxicity, requiring assessment and possible discontinuation of the infusion.
4. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating a pregnant client for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Vaginal discharge
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Joint pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by elevated blood pressure, proteinuria, and sometimes edema. Hypertension is a key sign of preeclampsia, and if present, further evaluation and monitoring are necessary to prevent complications for both the mother and the fetus.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the arterial blood gas results for a client in the ICU who has kidney failure and determines the client has respiratory acidosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Widened QRS complexes
- B. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
- C. Bounding peripheral pulses
- D. Warm, flushed skin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is characterized by an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the blood, leading to acidosis. This condition can affect the heart's electrical conduction system, resulting in widened QRS complexes on an electrocardiogram (ECG). Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, bounding peripheral pulses, and warm, flushed skin are not typically associated with respiratory acidosis.
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