Nursing Elites

1. A newborn is born to a mother with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. The newborn is macrosomic and presents with respiratory distress syndrome. The most likely cause of the respiratory distress is which of the following?

• A. Hyperinsulinemia
• B. Increased deposits of fat in the chest and shoulder area
• C. Brachial plexus injury
• D. Increased blood viscosity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperinsulinemia. In infants born to mothers with poorly controlled diabetes, the excess glucose crosses the placenta, leading to fetal hyperglycemia. This results in fetal hyperinsulinemia, which in turn can cause macrosomia (large birth weight), increasing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome due to the immature lungs' inability to handle the increased workload. Hyperinsulinemia, not increased deposits of fat, brachial plexus injury, or increased blood viscosity, is the most likely cause of respiratory distress in this scenario.

2. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes has an oral temperature of 38.9�C (102�F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

• A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours
• B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly
• C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid
• D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a pregnant woman with a temperature of 38.9�C (102�F) in early labor with ruptured membranes, assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid is crucial. Foul-smelling or malodorous amniotic fluid could indicate infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which poses risks to both the woman and the fetus. This assessment can help in determining if an infection is present and prompt appropriate interventions. Rechecking the temperature, administering glucocorticoids, or preparing for an emergency cesarean section are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario.

3. A healthcare provider in the emergency department is caring for a client who comes to the emergency department reporting severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the provider the presence of intra-abdominal bleeding?

• A. Chvostek's sign
• B. Cullen's sign
• C. Chadwick's sign
• D. Goodell's sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cullen's sign is the presence of periumbilical ecchymosis indicating intra-abdominal bleeding, which can be associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Chvostek's sign is a facial spasm related to hypocalcemia. Chadwick's sign is a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia during early pregnancy. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix in early pregnancy.

4. A client in labor at 40 weeks of gestation has saturated two perineal pads in the past 30 min. The nurse suspects placenta previa. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

• A. Examination to determine cervical status
• B. A magnesium sulfate infusion
• C. Initiation of pushing
• D. Preparation for cesarean birth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which is concerning for placenta previa. The appropriate nursing action in this situation is to prepare for a cesarean birth. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor. It is crucial to avoid vaginal examinations or initiation of pushing as these actions can exacerbate bleeding. A magnesium sulfate infusion is not indicated in the management of placenta previa. Therefore, the priority intervention is to prepare for a cesarean birth to ensure the safety of the mother and the baby.

5. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

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