ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023
1. When admitting a client at 33 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of placenta previa, which action should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Monitor vaginal bleeding
- B. Administer glucocorticoids
- C. Insert an IV catheter
- D. Apply an external fetal monitor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding. When admitting a client with placenta previa, the priority is to assess the fetal well-being. Applying an external fetal monitor helps in continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate and ensures timely detection of any distress or changes in the fetal status, which is crucial in managing this condition. While monitoring vaginal bleeding is important, identifying fetal well-being takes precedence in this situation.
2. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes has an oral temperature of 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
- A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours
- B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly
- C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid
- D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a pregnant woman with a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F) in early labor with ruptured membranes, assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid is crucial. Foul-smelling or malodorous amniotic fluid could indicate infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which poses risks to both the woman and the fetus. This assessment can help in determining if an infection is present and prompt appropriate interventions. Rechecking the temperature, administering glucocorticoids, or preparing for an emergency cesarean section are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario.
3. A client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth has a history of thromboembolic disease. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Apply warm, moist heat to the client's lower extremities.
- B. Massage the client's posterior lower legs.
- C. Place pillows under the client's knees when resting in bed.
- D. Have the client ambulate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth with a history of thromboembolic disease is to have the client ambulate. Early ambulation is crucial in preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis in postpartum clients. Applying warm, moist heat, massaging the legs, or placing pillows under the knees do not directly address the risk of thromboembolic disease in this scenario.
4. A client is being assessed for postpartum infection. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare provider that the client requires further evaluation for endometritis?
- A. Localized area of breast tenderness
- B. Pelvic pain
- C. Vaginal discharge with foul odor
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pelvic pain is a common symptom of endometritis, which is an infection of the uterine lining. It is an important finding that warrants further evaluation. Localized area of breast tenderness may indicate mastitis, vaginal discharge with a foul odor could suggest a vaginal infection, and hematuria points towards a urinary tract issue, but they are not specific to endometritis.
5. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating a pregnant client for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Vaginal discharge
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Joint pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by elevated blood pressure, proteinuria, and sometimes edema. Hypertension is a key sign of preeclampsia, and if present, further evaluation and monitoring are necessary to prevent complications for both the mother and the fetus.
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